Ed Sutton
GE, “Mt28:1 - unadulterated: "In the Sabbath's fullness of daylight, after noon ....” Opse sabbatohn tehi epiphohskousehi eis mian s.”,
Unadulterated????
……
the later ende of the Sabboth day, whiche dawneth the first daye of the weke, (Bishop's - 1568)
Now in the end of the Sabbath, when the first day of ye weeke began to dawne, (Geneva - 1587)
The sabbath being over, and the first day of the week beginning to dawn, (MACE - 1729)
Now after the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, (WES- 1755)
In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn towards the first [day] of the week, (WEBSTER)
After the Sabbath, in the early dawn of the first day of the week, (WEY ~1900)
And on the eve of the sabbaths, at the dawn, toward the first of the sabbaths, (YLT- 1862)
In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn towards the first [day] of the week, (DARBY)
And in the end of the sabbath, when it began to dawn towards the first day of the week, (D/R)
Now after the Sabbath, as it began to dawn on the first day of the week, (WEB)
Now after the Sabbath, as the first day of the week began to dawn, (NKJV)
Now after the Sabbath, toward the dawn of the first day of the week, (ESV)
After the Sabbath, as the first day of the week was dawning, (HSCB)
Now after the Sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, (NASB)
After the close of the Sabbath, with the dawning of the first day of the week, (MLB)
I'd suggest that the translators of these 15 versions which cover a 450 year period, were just as "unadulterated" as is the translator of the version you are either quoting (or translating yourself), per se.
And the only two of these I cited that agree exactly are two separated by an ocean and a 65 year interval, at that.
The 15 versions, alone do not necessarily make a single one of them a better (or worse) translation, of the passage in question, but it does, nonetheless, show that your own observation/preference may not be exactly 100% 'unbiased.'
GE, “Mt28:1 - unadulterated: "In the Sabbath's fullness of daylight, after noon ....” Opse sabbatohn tehi epiphohskousehi eis mian s.”,
Unadulterated????
……
the later ende of the Sabboth day, whiche dawneth the first daye of the weke, (Bishop's - 1568)
Now in the end of the Sabbath, when the first day of ye weeke began to dawne, (Geneva - 1587)
The sabbath being over, and the first day of the week beginning to dawn, (MACE - 1729)
Now after the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, (WES- 1755)
In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn towards the first [day] of the week, (WEBSTER)
After the Sabbath, in the early dawn of the first day of the week, (WEY ~1900)
And on the eve of the sabbaths, at the dawn, toward the first of the sabbaths, (YLT- 1862)
In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn towards the first [day] of the week, (DARBY)
And in the end of the sabbath, when it began to dawn towards the first day of the week, (D/R)
Now after the Sabbath, as it began to dawn on the first day of the week, (WEB)
Now after the Sabbath, as the first day of the week began to dawn, (NKJV)
Now after the Sabbath, toward the dawn of the first day of the week, (ESV)
After the Sabbath, as the first day of the week was dawning, (HSCB)
Now after the Sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, (NASB)
After the close of the Sabbath, with the dawning of the first day of the week, (MLB)
I'd suggest that the translators of these 15 versions which cover a 450 year period, were just as "unadulterated" as is the translator of the version you are either quoting (or translating yourself), per se.
And the only two of these I cited that agree exactly are two separated by an ocean and a 65 year interval, at that.
The 15 versions, alone do not necessarily make a single one of them a better (or worse) translation, of the passage in question, but it does, nonetheless, show that your own observation/preference may not be exactly 100% 'unbiased.'