Ed Sutton:
"
n the later ende of the Sabboth day, whiche dawneth the first daye of the weke, (Bishop's - 1568)
Now in the end of the Sabbath, when the first day of ye weeke began to dawne, (Geneva - 1587)
The sabbath being over, and the first day of the week beginning to dawn, (MACE - 1729)
Now after the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, (WES- 1755)
In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn towards the first [day] of the week, (WEBSTER)
After the Sabbath, in the early dawn of the first day of the week, (WEY ~1900)
And on the eve of the sabbaths, at the dawn, toward the first of the sabbaths, (YLT- 1862)
In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn towards the first [day] of the week, (DARBY)
And in the end of the sabbath, when it began to dawn towards the first day of the week, (D/R)
Now after the Sabbath, as it began to dawn on the first day of the week, (WEB)
Now after the Sabbath, as the first day of the week began to dawn, (NKJV)
Now after the Sabbath, toward the dawn of the first day of the week, (ESV)
After the Sabbath, as the first day of the week was dawning, (HSCB)
Now after the Sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, (NASB)
After the close of the Sabbath, with the dawning of the first day of the week, (MLB)
I'd suggest that the translators of these 15 versions which cover a 450 year period, were just as "unadulterated" as is the translator of the version you are either quoting (or translating yourself), per se.
And the only two of these I cited that agree exactly are two separated by an ocean and a 65 year interval, at that.
The 15 versions, alone do not necessarily make a single one of them a better (or worse) translation, of the passage in question, but it does, nonetheless, show that your own observation/preference may not be exactly 100% 'unbiased.'"
GE:
I am biased; very much so. Does it prove me wrong? According to your judgment it does. And eventually it proved to be your only valid objection. Congrats!
"On the later ende of the Sabboth day, whiche dawneth the first daye of the weke, (Bishop's - 1568)"
According to ES, everybody, "on", "late/r", "of" = 'after', 'early', 'NOT belonging to'.
"Now in the end of the Sabbath, when the first day of ye weeke began to dawne, (Geneva - 1587)"
According to ES, everybody, "in", means 'off out'; when the approach of the Sunday began, means when the Sunday itself had begun; "of" is no Possesive; the time did not belong to the Sabbath - it was not 'of the Sabbath's, but of the Sunday's.
Ditto with regard to : "Now in the end of the Sabbath, when the first day of ye weeke began to dawne, (Geneva - 1587)
Ditto: "In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn towards the first [day] of the week, (WEBSTER)"
"In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn towards the first [day] of the week, (DARBY)"
It's getting monotonous; so many in perfect agreement as to "On the Sabbath".
"And in the end of the sabbath, when it began to dawn towards the first day of the week, (D/R)"
"And on the eve of the sabbaths, at the dawn, toward the first of the sabbaths, (YLT- 1862)"
ALL of these, agree exactly.
"The sabbath being over, and the first day of the week beginning to dawn, (MACE - 1729)"
Ed Sutton is BLIND for the contradiction he REFUSES to see: "the first day of the week beginning to dawn" is while it was on the Sabbath. That period of time started, one second after noon on Saturday, about six hours BEFORE Sunday. MACE is a pitiable attempt at fraud.
"Now after the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, (WES- 1755)"
Ditto. unsuccesful attempt at fraud.
"Now after the Sabbath, toward the dawn of the first day of the week, (ESV)"
Ditto. unsuccesful attempt at fraud.
"Now after the Sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, (NASB)"
Ditto. Contradictory and self-destroying nonsense.
"After the Sabbath, as the first day of the week was dawning, (HSCB)"
Ditto. Besides, 'after' the Sabbath - as ES believes himself, is dusk after sunset; not early morning which in fact is half-way through the day.
"After the Sabbath, in the early dawn of the first day of the week, (WEY ~1900)"
This is better; at least a consistent and successful fraud.
"Now after the Sabbath, as it began to dawn on the first day of the week, (WEB)"
"Now after the Sabbath, as the first day of the week began to dawn, (NKJV)"
"After the close of the Sabbath, with the dawning of the first day of the week, (MLB) "
This is so muddled, it's difficult to find its place between all the fraud.
ALL of these, agree exactly - they all pervert the Word of God
I'd suggest Ed Sutton just copied and pasted and read nothing.
But take only the KJV (The words of the man who said may his part in Christ be taken from him, translated he not to the best of his conscience. What he here stated, was, "Sabbath's-time's" equivalent.) and the NKJV and READ them, side by side. One is adulterated; the other is not. If both to you are pure and the translators of both could confess their part in Christ be taken from them were they to translate against their conscience, then, dear Ed Sutton, it's time you go read Hebrews 4 from verse 9 until you'll read of the sword of the Word.