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"Is King James Onlyism Scriptural?"

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Logos1560

Well-Known Member
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As Christians, we have a DUTY to obey the Lord in all things.

That's true.

On the other hand, you have not demonstrated that you are obeying the Lord by your acceptance of non-scriptural KJV-only reasoning/teaching. You have also not demonstrated that believers who disagree with human, non-scriptural KJV-only reasoning/teaching are disobeying the Lord by doing so.

It would be obeying the Lord and scripture to oppose those who attempt to teach traditions and opinions of men as being a doctrine of God (Mark 7:7-9).

It would be obeying the Scriptures to advocate the use of just measures/standards and to oppose the use of unjust measures/standards.

It would be obeying the Scriptures to make righteous judgments and to speak (post) the truth.
 

George Antonios

Well-Known Member
I carefully re-read Will Kinney's article, "Is King James Onlyism Scriptural?", and, while he SAYS it is, he FAILS TO PROVIDE ONE QUARK OF SCRIPTURE THAT SAYS IT IS ! ! !

Instead, he posts several verses that are found in every other valid English Bible translation, & includes the disproven "Psalm 12:6-7 thingie" as well. (The AV 1611 itself proves that "thingie" wrong with its footnote for the 2nd "them" in V7 - "Heb. him, I. Euery one of them.")

He refuses to acknowledge any of the KJV's goofs & booboos, such as "Easter" in Acts 12:4, "Thou shalt not KILL" in Ex. 20:13, the ADDITION of "and shalt be" in Rev. 16:5, or the OMISSION of "through our Lord Jesus Christ" in Jude 25.(Remember, both addition and omission of any of God's word is as sin !)

Mr. Kinney cannot answer the "no Scriptural support" fact, so he tries to reverse the fact by saying that no other version is mentioned either. However, he ignores the FACT that, by not limiting Himself to any one translation in any language, God allows men to make new Bible translations as He wills. As Master of all language, God knows languages change over time, by His will, and thus, new translations of His word are needed. He originally caused His word to be written in ancient Hebrew, Aramaic, & Koine Greek because those were the languages used by His chosen penmen, and by His intended readership at that time. When God's time came to spread Christianity beyond the Jews & those peoples whom they lived among, God caused His word to be translated into other languages. Now, it's translated into some 2500 languages & dialects, even into some which have no written forms.

The TRUTH is, GOD IS NOT LIMITED in English, or any other language, to just one translation ! While some languages have only one translation, that's because they're recent ones, & that particular language isn't changing much. Mr. Kinney is simply COMPLETELY WRONG! But his obsession with the KJV & the KJVO myth won't let him see the truth.

The answer to the article's title question is a resounding "NO !"

Sigh.
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
When the Lord gets a hold of you, and I mean really gets a hold of you and shows you what we all are in His mirror, you won't keep feeling that way.
You will quickly realize ( as I have ) that all that hot-headedness was for nothing, as it served no purpose other than to show you exactly what the Lord Jesus died for;
Our own stubbornness and refusal to repent of our rebellion towards Him.

As Christians, we have a DUTY to obey the Lord in all things.
It is our reasonable service ( Romans 12 ) for what He has done for us...

To send His Son to die on a tree so that we may be forgiven of sins that would otherwise cause us to be cast into eternal fire.
Let us remember that, as it is far more important than this discussion will ever be.

As I see it, you, Logos and a few others on this forum seem to keep forgetting that.
Perhaps someday it will sink in, my friend, as I hope it does for all who read this.

Until then, I will only post on these threads in the interests of edification...
I'm not going to keep up this round-and-round just so that you and a few others have someone to fight against.
I hate war, Roby...
I've seen the effects of it, mainly at a distance.

I have no wish to see more of it close-up, and definitely not with professing believers in Jesus Christ.


Again, May God bless you, and each and every person here, by reminding us of His great grace.

Part of obeying Jesus is to answer His calling. Can't speak for Logos, but I have felt called for years to work against false doctrines of faith/worship & against pseudo-Christian cults.

In this sub-forum, the KJVO myth is a prevalent false doctrine, so I post here against it. (Elsewhere, I post against preterism, regenerational baptism, etc. & against such pseudo-Christian cults as JW, SDA, LDS, RCC, Amish, Quakers, etc. Yes, many Quakers say they're not Christians !)

I know not everyone likes this, but my duty is to GOD, not man. If my work leads one person from one false doctrine, it'll have been worth it.

And, I BELIEVE MOST SCRIPTURE LITERALLY ! While there's SOME symbolism in Scripture, it always represents something literal. If Scripture weren't literal, men could make it fit any doctrine he could invent. That's what many cults do now, invent new and false meanings for certain passages of Scripture !

(BTW, as a Navy corpsman deployed on land in Nam for 2 years, I saw & handled the effects of war first hand!)
 

InTheLight

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Long as KJVO exists, it must be fought. Same for other false doctrines.
Sure. But maybe you two could wait until some KJVO person asserts KJV-onlyism and then you could pounce, rather than starting threads every couple weeks.

Sent from my Pixel 2 XL using Tapatalk
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter

Do you practice what you preach since you evidently include your allegations against Calvinists and Calvinism in every post that you make?
 

Aaron

Member
Site Supporter
I carefully re-read Will Kinney's article, "Is King James Onlyism Scriptural?", and, while he SAYS it is, he FAILS TO PROVIDE ONE QUARK OF SCRIPTURE THAT SAYS IT IS ! ! !

Instead, he posts several verses that are found in every other valid English Bible translation, & includes the disproven "Psalm 12:6-7 thingie" as well. (The AV 1611 itself proves that "thingie" wrong with its footnote for the 2nd "them" in V7 - "Heb. him, I. Euery one of them.")

He refuses to acknowledge any of the KJV's goofs & booboos, such as "Easter" in Acts 12:4, "Thou shalt not KILL" in Ex. 20:13, the ADDITION of "and shalt be" in Rev. 16:5, or the OMISSION of "through our Lord Jesus Christ" in Jude 25.(Remember, both addition and omission of any of God's word is as sin !)

Mr. Kinney cannot answer the "no Scriptural support" fact, so he tries to reverse the fact by saying that no other version is mentioned either. However, he ignores the FACT that, by not limiting Himself to any one translation in any language, God allows men to make new Bible translations as He wills. As Master of all language, God knows languages change over time, by His will, and thus, new translations of His word are needed. He originally caused His word to be written in ancient Hebrew, Aramaic, & Koine Greek because those were the languages used by His chosen penmen, and by His intended readership at that time. When God's time came to spread Christianity beyond the Jews & those peoples whom they lived among, God caused His word to be translated into other languages. Now, it's translated into some 2500 languages & dialects, even into some which have no written forms.

The TRUTH is, GOD IS NOT LIMITED in English, or any other language, to just one translation ! While some languages have only one translation, that's because they're recent ones, & that particular language isn't changing much. Mr. Kinney is simply COMPLETELY WRONG! But his obsession with the KJV & the KJVO myth won't let him see the truth.

The answer to the article's title question is a resounding "NO !"
If it WERE scriptural, it would be false. :Laugh
 

InTheLight

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Do you practice what you preach since you evidently include your allegations against Calvinists and Calvinism in every post that you make?
Why, yes, yes I do.

Someone asserts Calvinism on a daily basis here. There's even an entire forum dedicated to it.

Not only that, but I discuss plenty of other topics here, unlike your monomaniacal devotion to KJV-onlyism.

Thanks for playing.

Sent from my Pixel 2 XL using Tapatalk
 

Garrett20

Member
Long as KJVO exists, it must be fought. Same for other false doctrines.

Hello Robycop (cool name!). Just for my clarification, do you add KJV-Onlyist ‘false doctrine’ on the same plain of teaching as the LDS, JW, Quakers, etc? I am not KJVO but in my ministry experience it typically shows itself as more of KJV-Preferred.
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Hello Robycop (cool name!). Just for my clarification, do you add KJV-Onlyist ‘false doctrine’ on the same plain of teaching as the LDS, JW, Quakers, etc? I am not KJVO but in my ministry experience it typically shows itself as more of KJV-Preferred.

Naturally, some false doctrines and/or cults are worse than others. Not all lead to doom, but all should be addressed.

The KJVO myth could be quite-harmful to someone who was led to Jesus through God's word in another version, if some KJVO manages to convince a person that he/she is using a false Bible version. That could cause a person to doubt God's word.

While the late Dr. J. Vernon McGee preached from the KJV & had a radio course that covered the entire Bible, (Still aired on several radio stations) he didn't hesitate to point out there are other valid Bible versions, & that the KJV has goofs & booboos such as "Easter" in Acts 12:4. Dr. McGee said he used the KJV because that's what he'd been led to Jesus through, & was the version with which he was most-familiar. However, many KJVOs wrongly insist the KJV is the ONLY valid English Bible translation out there.
 

Marooncat79

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
How can the Bible possibly attest to ONLY the KJV when it is 1,500 yrs removed from the end of the Apostolic Age and the close of the canon?
 

Reynolds

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I carefully re-read Will Kinney's article, "Is King James Onlyism Scriptural?", and, while he SAYS it is, he FAILS TO PROVIDE ONE QUARK OF SCRIPTURE THAT SAYS IT IS ! ! !

Instead, he posts several verses that are found in every other valid English Bible translation, & includes the disproven "Psalm 12:6-7 thingie" as well. (The AV 1611 itself proves that "thingie" wrong with its footnote for the 2nd "them" in V7 - "Heb. him, I. Euery one of them.")

He refuses to acknowledge any of the KJV's goofs & booboos, such as "Easter" in Acts 12:4, "Thou shalt not KILL" in Ex. 20:13, the ADDITION of "and shalt be" in Rev. 16:5, or the OMISSION of "through our Lord Jesus Christ" in Jude 25.(Remember, both addition and omission of any of God's word is as sin !)

Mr. Kinney cannot answer the "no Scriptural support" fact, so he tries to reverse the fact by saying that no other version is mentioned either. However, he ignores the FACT that, by not limiting Himself to any one translation in any language, God allows men to make new Bible translations as He wills. As Master of all language, God knows languages change over time, by His will, and thus, new translations of His word are needed. He originally caused His word to be written in ancient Hebrew, Aramaic, & Koine Greek because those were the languages used by His chosen penmen, and by His intended readership at that time. When God's time came to spread Christianity beyond the Jews & those peoples whom they lived among, God caused His word to be translated into other languages. Now, it's translated into some 2500 languages & dialects, even into some which have no written forms.

The TRUTH is, GOD IS NOT LIMITED in English, or any other language, to just one translation ! While some languages have only one translation, that's because they're recent ones, & that particular language isn't changing much. Mr. Kinney is simply COMPLETELY WRONG! But his obsession with the KJV & the KJVO myth won't let him see the truth.

The answer to the article's title question is a resounding "NO !"
Is being obsessed with this issue Scriptural?
 

1689Dave

Well-Known Member
I carefully re-read Will Kinney's article, "Is King James Onlyism Scriptural?", and, while he SAYS it is, he FAILS TO PROVIDE ONE QUARK OF SCRIPTURE THAT SAYS IT IS ! ! !

Instead, he posts several verses that are found in every other valid English Bible translation, & includes the disproven "Psalm 12:6-7 thingie" as well. (The AV 1611 itself proves that "thingie" wrong with its footnote for the 2nd "them" in V7 - "Heb. him, I. Euery one of them.")

He refuses to acknowledge any of the KJV's goofs & booboos, such as "Easter" in Acts 12:4, "Thou shalt not KILL" in Ex. 20:13, the ADDITION of "and shalt be" in Rev. 16:5, or the OMISSION of "through our Lord Jesus Christ" in Jude 25.(Remember, both addition and omission of any of God's word is as sin !)

Mr. Kinney cannot answer the "no Scriptural support" fact, so he tries to reverse the fact by saying that no other version is mentioned either. However, he ignores the FACT that, by not limiting Himself to any one translation in any language, God allows men to make new Bible translations as He wills. As Master of all language, God knows languages change over time, by His will, and thus, new translations of His word are needed. He originally caused His word to be written in ancient Hebrew, Aramaic, & Koine Greek because those were the languages used by His chosen penmen, and by His intended readership at that time. When God's time came to spread Christianity beyond the Jews & those peoples whom they lived among, God caused His word to be translated into other languages. Now, it's translated into some 2500 languages & dialects, even into some which have no written forms.

The TRUTH is, GOD IS NOT LIMITED in English, or any other language, to just one translation ! While some languages have only one translation, that's because they're recent ones, & that particular language isn't changing much. Mr. Kinney is simply COMPLETELY WRONG! But his obsession with the KJV & the KJVO myth won't let him see the truth.

The answer to the article's title question is a resounding "NO !"
What translation do you approve of?
 

church mouse guy

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Naturally, some false doctrines and/or cults are worse than others. Not all lead to doom, but all should be addressed.

The KJVO myth could be quite-harmful to someone who was led to Jesus through God's word in another version, if some KJVO manages to convince a person that he/she is using a false Bible version. That could cause a person to doubt God's word.

While the late Dr. J. Vernon McGee preached from the KJV & had a radio course that covered the entire Bible, (Still aired on several radio stations) he didn't hesitate to point out there are other valid Bible versions, & that the KJV has goofs & booboos such as "Easter" in Acts 12:4. Dr. McGee said he used the KJV because that's what he'd been led to Jesus through, & was the version with which he was most-familiar. However, many KJVOs wrongly insist the KJV is the ONLY valid English Bible translation out there.

Well, you agree with Spurgeon that the universe is millions and millions of years old--is that cultic?
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
@robycop3 :
Your avatar picture seems to me to be one of a rough, tough "scrapper" that is always looking for a fight, my friend.
Unfortunately, the title of your article does nothing to dissuade me from believing that, nor does my interaction with you over these past two years or so...:(

Believe me, I understand your motivations, or at least I think that I do.

But I've found out the hard way that all my efforts at trying to get people to see my point of view really don't make a difference in the long run.
Some will listen, most won't...and I've come to accept that.
What's more, I'm coming to see that it's best to leave off contention:

" The beginning of strife [is] as when one letteth out water: therefore leave off contention, before it be meddled with." ( Proverbs 17:14 ).
" The beginning of strife [is like] releasing water; Therefore stop contention before a quarrel starts." ( Proverbs 17:14, NKJV ).

Read the Proverbs, my brother, and heed them.
They are a wealth of wisdom.
Also, may I encourage you not to keep railing on Will Kinney, or other "KJVO's / KJVP's"?
We are, frankly, persuaded differently than you and we've tried to tell you our concerns.

It has nothing to do with whether or not one old English translation of the Bible should be forced upon believers...
It has everything to do with manuscripts and translation techniques, and utlimately, with men maltreating God's precious words in these last days...
Men who don't seem to care about Matthew 4:4 and Luke 4:4.

Many of us see something far more subtle at work in the making of most of the newer English translations, and it's not godly.
It's confusing, and God is not the author of confusion in His churches.

So far you are in opposition to the evidence that some have tried to show you, and by all appearances, will remain so.
I respect that.
What's more, beating on each other and seeking to refute each other's position, does nothing to edify anyone in the process.:Redface

His word tells us:

" Wherefore putting away lying, speak every man truth with his neighbour: for we are members one of another.
26 Be ye angry, and sin not: let not the sun go down upon your wrath:
27 neither give place to the devil.
28 Let him that stole steal no more: but rather let him labour, working with [his] hands the thing which is good, that he may have to give to him that needeth.
29 Let no corrupt communication proceed out of your mouth, but that which is good to the use of edifying, that it may minister grace unto the hearers.
30 And grieve not the holy Spirit of God, whereby ye are sealed unto the day of redemption.
31 Let all bitterness, and wrath, and anger, and clamour, and evil speaking, be put away from you, with all malice:
32 and be ye kind one to another, tenderhearted, forgiving one another, even as God for Christ’s sake hath forgiven you."
( Ephesians 4:25-32 ).

Also:

" For, brethren, ye have been called unto liberty; only [use] not liberty for an occasion to the flesh, but by love serve one another.
14 For all the law is fulfilled in one word, [even] in this; Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.
15 But if ye bite and devour one another, take heed that ye be not consumed one of another.
16 [This] I say then, Walk in the Spirit, and ye shall not fulfil the lust of the flesh.
17 For the flesh lusteth against the Spirit, and the Spirit against the flesh: and these are contrary the one to the other: so that ye cannot do the things that ye would.
18 But if ye be led of the Spirit, ye are not under the law."
( Galatians 5:13-18 ).

Finally,

" Now the works of the flesh are manifest, which are [these]; Adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lasciviousness,
20 idolatry, witchcraft, hatred, variance, emulations, wrath, strife, seditions, heresies,
21 envyings, murders, drunkenness, revellings, and such like: of the which I tell you before, as I have also told [you] in time past, that they which do such things shall not inherit the kingdom of God.
22 But the fruit of the Spirit is love, joy, peace, longsuffering, gentleness, goodness, faith,
23 meekness, temperance: against such there is no law.
24 And they that are Christ’s have crucified the flesh with the affections and lusts.
25 If we live in the Spirit, let us also walk in the Spirit.
26 Let us not be desirous of vain glory, provoking one another, envying one another.
" ( Galatians 5:19-26 ).


May God bless you with many good things as you grow in both His knowledge and grace.
Which TR greek text is the perfect one then, and which Kjv version would be?
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Well, you agree with Spurgeon that the universe is millions and millions of years old--is that cultic?

Yes, I do, as I have access to scientific fact that Spurgeon didn't. However, the present arrangement of most of the face of the earth isn't that old. it's not cultic; it's SCIENTIFIC.
 
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