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"Is King James Onlyism Scriptural?"

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George Antonios

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You do not present your understanding of the doctrine of inspiration, and you do not show that your understanding is more sound and scriptural.


According to the Scriptures themselves, it could be soundly concluded that inspiration would be a term for the way, method, or process by which God directly gave the Scriptures to the prophets and apostles or for the way that the words proceeded from the mouth of God to the prophets and apostles (2 Tim 3:16, 2 Pet. 1:21, Matt. 4:4, Eph. 3:5).


Jim Taylor defined the term inspiration as follows: “A process by which God breathed out his very words through holy men in order that his very words could be recorded’” (In Defense of the TR, p. 328). Jim Taylor affirmed: “As a theological definition, inspiration is a process” (p. 33). Jim Taylor asserted: “Inspiration is a process which was completed when the last New Testament writer wrote the last word” (p. 34). David Cloud maintained that 2 Timothy 3:16 “describes the original process of the giving of Scripture,” and he noted that “the same process is described in 2 Peter 1:19-21” (Glorious History of the KJB, p. 213). David Cloud observed: “Inspiration does not refer to the process of transcribing or translating the Bible, but to the process of God giving the words to the men who wrote the Bible” (O Timothy, Vol. 11, Issue 11, 1994, p. 4). D. A. Waite asserted: “The process of inspiration does apply to the original manuscripts (known as the autographs). This process was never repeated” (Fundamentalist Mis-Information, p. 106). Charles Kriessman wrote: “Inspiration is a process by which God breathed out His Words from Genesis to Revelation” (Modern Version Failures, p. 46). Kriessman quoted Thomas Strouse as stating: “Inspiration is a process whereby the Holy Spirit led the writers of Scripture to record accurately His very Words; the product of this process was the inspired originals” (p. 47). Irving Jensen noted: “We cannot explain the supernatural process of inspiration, which brought about the original writings of the Bible. Paul refers to the process as God-breathing” (Jensen’s Survey of the OT, p. 19). Gregory Tyree asserted: “This process of inspiration will never again be repeated because the canon has been closed” (Does It Really Matter, p. 32).

The sixteenth verse in 2 Timothy in the KJV stated “all Scripture is given by inspiration of God,” but the verse does not actually say or assert that it would be later translated by inspiration. There is no mention of the process of translating in the verse. Do some try to assume by the fallacy of begging the question that somehow the process of translating is found in the verse? Do some try to use a weak argument from silence and try to find something in the verse that is not directly stated? Would the Holy Spirit of truth guide believers to assume opinions by fallacies? Would trying to suggest that 2 Timothy 3:16 teaches something it does not state be evidence of sound spiritual discernment?

This verse in the third chapter of 2 Timothy does not actually assert nor infer that there is a giving or re-giving of the Scriptures by inspiration of God each time it was copied or each time it was translated into a different language. This verse does not assert nor teach that the process or method for the making of Bible translations is by inspiration. It has not been soundly demonstrated from the Scriptures that inspiration would be a correct term for the way, method, or process by which the original-language Scriptures are copied or are translated into other languages including into English.

Do KJV-only authors clearly demonstrate that they merely let the Scriptures themselves define inspiration, and do they present that definition? Perhaps it has never occurred to some KJV-only advocates that their definition, understanding, and interpretation of inspiration may not be sound or perfect. What is their clear, precise, sound definition and understanding of inspiration that can be applied consistently, soundly, and justly in the same sense (univocally) including both before and after 1611?

Of course the arguments in this post contradict the scriptures, but that's beside my point right now.
I did not intend to expound on my understanding of inspiration. I was merely pointing out to @robycop3 that we differ from non-KJVOs on a deeper level than just what version we believe. That was all.
 

Logos1560

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I did not intend to expound on my understanding of inspiration.

Your choice to keep your understanding of inspiration unpresented or hidden does not suggest that it is correct and scriptural.

If your understanding is true and scriptural, you should want to present it for the edification of others.
 

Logos1560

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we KJVOs disagree with non-KJVOs on a deeper level than a particular translation

Perhaps you over-generalize. All KJV-only advocates do not agree in their understanding or claims concerning inspiration and preservation. Some KJV-only advocates actually agree with my understanding on inspiration, and I quoted from some of their own assertions. There are KJV-only advocates who assert that the KJV is not inspired.
 

George Antonios

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church mouse guy

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Ah ok, thanks. I live in Montreal, Quebec, Canada. Lord willing, when my children are a little older, my wife and I plan on taking them there.


Oh, I have been watching Rebel Media the last year or so about the trials and tribulations of Canada. I went to London, Ontario, years ago to see the Shakespeare theatre. Creation Ministries International has a very good television show from Canada. Creation | Creation Ministries International

Also, one of the nicest guys from CMI went to work for Answers In Genesis (Ken Ham and the Ark Encounter and Creation Museum) and is head of the Canadian office of AiG. His name is Calvin Smith, in case that you have heard of him. Calvin Smith
 

Yeshua1

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How can the Bible possibly attest to ONLY the KJV when it is 1,500 yrs removed from the end of the Apostolic Age and the close of the canon?
Interesting that the 1611 team took some readings from Latin Vulgate, was that inspired and perfect also?
 

Yeshua1

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1) As native Arabic-speaking, Lebanese man, who learned English mainly off of TV and believes the King James Bible to be the inspired words of God (insert shriek at heresy here), I can tell you that our fundamental disagreement with the non-KJVOs is not actually about the KJV - it's about the existence (or lack thereof) of any perfect Bible.

2) We also differ on our understanding of the doctrine of inspiration.

Those are the differences at the macro-level. Like I said, we may disagree, but if you kethen?ep 1 & 2 in mind, it may help you understand why we disagree.
Do you hold then to the translators of the 1611 were inspired to make their translation in same fashion the Spirit inspired the writers of the Originals
 

Yeshua1

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Perhaps you over-generalize. All KJV-only advocates do not agree in their understanding or claims concerning inspiration and preservation. Some KJV-only advocates actually agree with my understanding on inspiration, and I quoted from some of their own assertions. There are KJV-only advocates who assert that the KJV is not inspired.
What Kjvo does not hold to the 1611 being inspired by the Holy Spirit in same way Originals were?
 

church mouse guy

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What Kjvo does not hold to the 1611 being inspired by the Holy Spirit in same way Originals were?

Don't you think that dispensationalism is just as bad as KJVO because dispensationalism teaches one to be afraid to tell the A-C to go to hell? After all, the A-C may just be Pope Francis.
 

Yeshua1

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Don't you think that dispensationalism is just as bad as KJVO because dispensationalism teaches one to be afraid to tell the A-C to go to hell? After all, the A-C may just be Pope Francis.
The analogy between Dispy and Kjvo would be accurate IF I held to Dispy tjeology, and also held that those holding to Covenant theology were holding to doctrines of demons, into false Christianity!
 

church mouse guy

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The analogy between Dispy and Kjvo would be accurate IF I held to Dispy tjeology, and also held that those holding to Covenant theology were holding to doctrines of demons, into false Christianity!

The problem is that these minor issues in relation to salvation doctrines just don't qualify as cultic. An American opinion on eschatology or Deep Time or even a belief in Darwin or an seemingly illogical preferences for a non-Model A translation are relatively minor. Are you going to say that infant baptism is cultic? Are you going to say that no baptism as in Quaker denominations and The Salvation Army denomination are cultic? To call something cultic is a serious charge and cannot be based upon disagreement alone. After all, Spurgeon himself probably used the KJV and was a believer in Deep Time, yet no Biblical Creationist would even think to call Spurgeon a cultist on any point.
 

robycop3

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Is t

Hat why T-Rex went extinct?

Among other factors, the first mammals, small rat-size critters, ate their eggs, & it doesn't seem like T Rex was overly fertile anyway. Also, changing climate & lessening of food supply contributed.
 
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