Ed Edwards
<img src=/Ed.gif>
No. He didn'tdieOriginally posted by robycop3:
Did God retire in 1611, or does He still preserve/present/provide His word in the languages of today?
until 1769.
He left Jack Chick in charge
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No. He didn'tdieOriginally posted by robycop3:
Did God retire in 1611, or does He still preserve/present/provide His word in the languages of today?
Once again, fascinating -- two different versions of the same Spanish translation. To what "final authority" do we appeal when our "final authorities" disagree?Originally posted by Anti-Alexandrian:
My copy of the 1585 Valera reads:Porque no me averguenzo del evangelio[The GOSPEL in English]de Christo;porque es poder de Dios para salvacion a todo aquel que cree:al Judio primeramente,y tambien al Greigo.
No,NO NO!!.....I put the "gospel in English" to show what the Spanish words would be IN ENGLISH.....Translate the passage into English and you will see what I mean..That's all we need is a Spanish version saying that only the Gospel in English is of Christ!
Yes I would say two different versions are present here...The one that you are trying to prove the 1585 wrong is not an 1585-or 1602-Valera..Once again, fascinating -- two different versions of the same Spanish translation. To what "final authority" do we appeal when our "final authorities" disagree?
This LINK will help you find the true Spanish Bible of the reformation.BTW, where did you get the copy of the Reina-Valera you are using? Is it readily available to any Spanish-speaking person?
Why this fixation on replacing the Greek and Hebrew?Sometimes the question is raised: Why translate from a translation (the Latin Vulgate) rather than from the original Greek and Hebrew? This question was also raised in the 16th century when the Douay-Rheims translators (Fr. Gregory Martin and his assistants) first published the Rheims New Testament. They gave ten reasons, ending up by stating that the Latin Vulgate "is not only better then all other Latin translations, but than the Greek text itself, in those places where they disagree." (Preface to the Rheims New Testament, 1582). They state that the Vulgate is "more pure then the Hebrew or Greek now extant" and that "the same Latin hath bene barre better conserved from corruption." (Preface to the Douay Old Testament, 1609).
http://www.marianland.com/bible20.html
Yes I would say two different versions are present here...The one that you are trying to prove the 1585 wrong is not an 1585-or 1602-Valera.. </font>[/QUOTE]How do you know this? Do you have "the original" of the Reina-Valera Spanish Bible translation?Originally posted by Anti-Alexandrian:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> Once again, fascinating -- two different versions of the same Spanish translation. To what "final authority" do we appeal when our "final authorities" disagree?
This LINK will help you find the true Spanish Bible of the reformation. </font>[/QUOTE]One section of the website's article "Which Spanish Bible is Correct?" is *very* revealing:</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> BTW, where did you get the copy of the Reina-Valera you are using? Is it readily available to any Spanish-speaking person?
Well,seeing that I speak English,I would think the answer is obvious;the 1602 Valera was "revised" in 1865,big deal...The 1865 is the oustanding representative of the Byzantine texts in Spanish..The questions remain: what do you do when the KJV and the 1602 Reina-Valera disagree? To what "final authority" do you turn when your "final authorities" disagree?
Well,seeing that I speak English,I would think the answer is obvious;the 1602 Valera was "revised" in 1865,big deal...The 1865 is the oustanding representative of the Byzantine texts in Spanish..Originally posted by Anti-Alexandrian:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> The questions remain: what do you do when the KJV and the 1602 Reina-Valera disagree? To what "final authority" do you turn when your "final authorities" disagree?
...the Baptist Pope, or is it the Anglican Translators?Originally posted by Archangel7:
Still waiting for an answer: if I speak both English and Spanish, and my two "final authorities" (the KJV and the Reina-Valera) disagree, to what "final authority" do I turn to resolve the disagreement?
Yes I would say two different versions are present here...The one that you are trying to prove the 1585 wrong is not an 1585-or 1602-Valera..Originally posted by Anti-Alexandrian:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> Once again, fascinating -- two different versions of the same Spanish translation. To what "final authority" do we appeal when our "final authorities" disagree?
This LINK will help you find the true Spanish Bible of the reformation. </font>[/QUOTE]Let's use the same argument on the KJV. It appears if what you say about the Spanish Bible is true then we ought to be reading the "true English Bible of the reformation" or the 1611 version.BTW, where did you get the copy of the Reina-Valera you are using? Is it readily available to any Spanish-speaking person?
Hi Michelle,Originally posted by michelle:
Peace and love to you all in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour!
May the Lord continue to richly bless you all.
love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle