Romans 3 is quoting the OT. But what passage of the old testiment?
“None is righteous, no, not one;
11no one understands;
no one seeks for God.
12All have turned aside; together they have become worthless;
no one does good,
not even one.”
13“Their throat is an open grave;
they use their tongues to deceive.”
“The venom of asps is under their lips.”
14“Their mouth is full of curses and bitterness.”
15“Their feet are swift to shed blood;
16in their paths are ruin and misery,
17and the way of peace they have not known.”
18“There is no fear of God before their eyes.”
Perhaps the author of Romans is quoting from various sources, combining multiple sources into a single line of reasoning?
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It is my belief this is true even of some Christians Carnal as may be the case. Salomon wrote:
Ecc 7:20 For there is not a just man upon earth, that doeth good, and sinneth not.
How is it that some would, in light of the total quote above, find the human free will of its own innate volition acapable of expressing a human faith value sufficiently righteous enough to gainior reject salvation?
A question that should be asked of the Jews who rejected Christ by there free will.
Christ came to save the Jews to and they rejected Christ The Jews were suppose to be looking for the Messiah. Yet they couldn't believe there own Bible.
Luk 13:34 O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, which killest the prophets, and stonest them that are sent unto thee; how often would I have gathered thy children together, as a hen doth gather her brood under her wings, and ye would not!
Does not John 1 clearly state that such is not in the ability of human will?
I do not believe it says that at all. It says clearly that men are sinful it does not say they have no choice.
Is it correct to assume that this section of Scripture must in some manner be modified or rejected that there can be free will choice which allows the nonbeliever to choose righteousness?
It's clear it needs no such modification. Freewill is not mentioned but it is demonstrated.
Joh 1:12 But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name:
No where does it say anything about not having the ability to choose right from wrong. Some choose wrong because that is what they would rather have it.
Calvinist have always claimed man is so depraved that he can't choose good.yet scripture never states man is unable to respond to the gospel or that he is incapable.
Was the writer of this passage not declaring the fallen condition of the both the Jews and Gentiles?
Is it a false gospel to teach freedom of choice and not in effect refute this passage?
No it isn't. How ever it is a sin to say scripture says something that it clearly does not. and it never says man is unable in any way to come to Christ .
Must not the embracing of free will oblige one to disregard or in some manner modify Romans 3?
All men can come to God because all men are drawn.
MB