Brother Bob said:
Ed;
Ed you need to quit using scripture telling us that we are no longer under the Law Covenant of circumcism, sacrifices and trying to apply it to repenting of sins. What extremes some will go to try and justify their theology.
BBob,
Brother Bob, I did not say one thing about any of this you just ascribed to me. Unless I have not got that someone else is named Ed. I think you have the wrong person on this one. I did cite Rom. 11:6, to show that one cannot admix grace and works, for they are either one or the other.
I'll try and type real slow here, so I don't lose you or anyone else in this.
You are absolutely correct that I do believe (and the Bible teaches) that a Christian is
free from, and
not under ANY of the stated precepts of
the 'Mosaic' Law, which BTW, is one reason we are
not to sin (Rom. 6:14-15; 7:3; 8:2; Gal. 5:18),
which entire law was personally nailed to the cross by the Lord Jesus Christ, himself (Eph.2:14-16; Col. 2:14), and 'replaced', as it were, by a new 'law' that is
entirely of 'grace' principles and language, and is variously described as "
the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus", "
the law of faith", "
the law of liberty", "
the royal law", "
My commandments", and "
a new commandment", in the words of Jesus, Paul, and James, among other descriptions. (Jn. 13:34; 14:15, 21; Rom. 3:27; 8:2; Jas. 1:25; 2:8; et al.)
The
modus operandi of this 'law' is being "led by the Spirit", something that a lost individual never can even do. (Rom. 8:14) Read Romans to see the real effect of both this now abolished 'old law' and this now established 'new law', which is based on the same 'real principles' that underly both 'laws'. One more thing, as a Gentile, I never even 'had' the 'old law' ("your law") that was given only to Jewish Israel (Jn. 8:17; 10:34; 18:31; Ac. 18:15; Rom. 2:14
a), and I have absolutely no desire, now, to place myself under "the law of sin and death". (Rom. 8:2; Gal. 4:21) which only has the promise of death for failure to perform to its standards, as an "all or nothing" proposition. (Gal. 5:2-4; Jas. 2:9-11)
Sorry for the short above "derail" but it was necessary in the context of my replying to the post.
Further, "
repentance" or "repent" (that is the subject of this thread, you remember) is never
once spoken of in any way in the Mosaic law, for that word is not used there, but "sin" is spoken of a bunch of times in the law, at least 100 times, if not double that, by count. (I did not count exactly, in the Var. Scriptures)
So I do fully admit to "using Scripture" by quoting it, in context. And I do not (nor have I ever done so) applied it to any non- existent Biblical phrase such as "repenting of sins" (Again, that is the OP, you remember), for one can't apply it to something that does not exist. And as that phrase does not exist in the first place, I take exception to the implied charge of and I quote:
What extremes some will go to (sic) try and justify their theology.
I suggest some others might want to check a mirror on this one. (I did and only see an ugly mug looking back!) :laugh:
Back to the serious stuff. And let's not forget that of all these individuals, from the universally beloved, now banned poster
Sanderson (holding my side on this one, as I type one-handed), to
carrierwave~, to
Tom Butler, to
Alcott, to
webdog, to
Joe, to
Npetreley, to the not on this thread
DHK, to yours truly,
EdSutton - (
tinytim is almost there, and
mcdirector is part way there, but not yet fully with me here, but both are leaning in the right direction) -
not one of them has said that repentance is not necessary, or should not be preached (I have consistently said that
repentance is both necessary and should be preached), but have
variously said that:
(1) it is not properly defined as "repentance of/from sin(s)", especially in the matter of salvation (for the Bible tells us that 'direction' of repentance/faith in Ac. 20:21 and Heb 6:1
b)
;
(2) that "repent"/"repentance" is the 'flip-side', hence an integral, indivisible part of "believe"/"faith";
(3) that this is often a verson of a "code phrase" or a 'back door' attempt to make grace and faith encompass and include works, by definition;
(4) that it may well be a subterfuge for what is known as "Lordship salvation";
(5) that that phrase ["repent of/from one's sin(s)"] is not to be found in Scripture; and that
(6) a "repentance" (change of mind) from sin, unto holy living should be expected from one when one becomes a Christian, through spiritual growth, Spirit control, and maturity - among other things said in defense of "free grace".
So personally, I think that I have plowed this same furrow enough times and it is (or should at least be) deep enough to bury forever several "spiritual dead horses" in so that they are never again seen.
And I suggest that the ones who are actually "trying to justify their theology" are the ones who are adding words to Scripture, such as "of sins" to the word "repent", where it is not found, or "really and truly" to "believe", and not those of us who are "telling it like it is" and not using any more words on the subject than as Scripture does.
Ed
P.S. It is certainly no "honor" to be found on the OP list, when this (or any) OP list is exposing a false teaching! Do you hear me on this,
tinytim?