Thank you. I have now looked at your example. First we need to be honest with the text. There is no place that says Jesus revoked the death penalty.
Ok, let's be honest with the text.
Look at the passage again. Jesus did not tell them to set her free, but He told them to obey the law and stone her. He had to because that was the law. Yes He also said him who is without sin cast the first stone, but if they had been willing to obey the law they would have known there was no such provision and went ahead and stoned her.
First, let's be honest with the text,:tongue3: Jesus did not say, "obey the Law and stone her". That is not in the text. He did not "also say" "him who is without sin..." That is "only" what He said.
I believe you are misunderstanding the passage. They knew what the Law said and where willing to obey it and demanded Jesus validate their desires (John 8:5). What Jesus said was different from the requirement of 2 or 3 witnesses found in the Law for implementing the death penalty. Do you agree that saying "him who is without sin among you...." is a different command of 2 or 3 witnesses being the first to cast stones?
By using those words, He revealed their own sinfulness in the matter as He changed the requirements for implementing the death penalty. They knew they had broken the Law in this very instance by being biased and not bringing the man.
They disobeyed the law because of their own guilt and blindness.
I think that is a stretch. They knew the Law and could have brought the man and stoned them both. Instead, they accepted the change in the implementation of the Law that Jesus gave to them.
Your analysis of why Jesus did not condemn the woman is partially correct... there were no longer witnesses...., however, you fail to see the obvious... "Him who is without sin among you" was unwilling to condemn her to death.
Thank you for your reasoned arguments, even though we disagree.:1_grouphug:
peace to you
raying: