Now that you have come to the Scriptures, look at it in its context and quote it accurately.GodlyWoman said:The angel Gabriel said "Hail full of grace ... . and Elizabeth said "the mother of my Lord ..." Then Jesus said "behold your mother...
Luke 1:28 And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.
--Mary was "highly favored." In five different translations there is no "full of grace." She was favored. She was highly favored in the sense that God chose her to bear the body of Jesus. She was a vessel used of God in a point in history and that is all.
"The Lord is with thee." Amen. The Lord is with every believer. He promises never to forsake us or leave us.
"Blessed art thou among women" Among the women of that time in that area she was blessed to bear the child Jesus. It in no way refers to all women of all ages.
Judges 5:24 Blessed above women shall Jael the wife of Heber the Kenite be.
So who is it? Jael or Mary that is blessed above all women? It can't be both can it?
"And Elizabeth said, the mother of my Lord."
What did Elizabeth say?
Luke 1:43 And whence is this to me, that the mother of my Lord should come to me?
--The context shows that the Holy Spirit was telling Elizabeth that Mary would give birth to the Messiah.
That is right. Woman behold thy son. Not "mother." Jesus did not address her as mother. That is important to note, for Jesus did not consider Mary as his mother. He was also making Mary to understand that she was not His mother. In fact he told John: "Behold 'thy' mother." John was to take care of Mary as if Mary was his mother.Mary's role flows directly from Christ. She stood at the cross, consented to the immolation of her Son and then received the beloved disciple at Jesus' Words, ‘Woman, behold your son" (Jn 19:26-27).
Do you have Biblical proof here.After Jesus' Ascension, she aided the early Church by her prayers and implored the gift of the Spirit who had already overshadowed her in the Annunciation.
Whatever you say. Then from ancient times people have been in gross error. Every writer of the NT has warned about false error, false teachers, false prophets. If they were there in the time of Christ and in the time of the Apostles, then your statement could very well be true. But that doesn't make it doctrinally correct. Ever since the garden of Eden people have believed the serpent's lie: "ye shall be as gods." Does that make it true? Antiquity does not equal truth.Mary said that "all generations will call me blessed" (Lk 1:48). From ancient times the Church has honored her as "the Mother of God."
The practice of the rosary is heretical. It takes away worship from God and blasphemously gives it to Mary, making Mary into an idol. It is idolatry and blasphemy.The Church has special devotion to Mary which differs essentially from the adoration given to the Trinity. Her liturgical feasts and the rosary ("the epitome of the whole Gospel") express this devotion.
Furthermore Jesus said:
Matthew 6:7 But when ye pray, use not vain repetitions, as the heathen do: for they think that they shall be heard for their much speaking.
The rosary is vain repetitions as the heathen do.
53 times is the "Hail Mary" repeated. It is a vain repetition. It is prayer to Mary as a god. There is only one God and it is not Mary. This kind of thing puts Catholicism in a class of pagan religions like Hinduism. It sets it apart from Christianity. Christianity has no part in goddess worship. That is a pagan practice.
You say the rosary is the epitome of the whole gospel. I laugh. I was a Catholic for 20 years, and never heard the gospel once. I prayed through the rosary almost every day. I can post for you the Hail Mary. There is no gospel there; only the worship of Mary. There is no gospel in the rosary; even to post such is a lie. Demonstrate how there is the gospel in the rosary. That should be interesting.