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KJV and the modern versions

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Darron Steele

New Member
Heavenly Pilgrim said:


HP: And blunt you were…… but as I thought, all accusation and no offer of any real substance. ...
GO TO THE SITE. A query you made about the site as you made an objection can be found with just a cursory search on the site.

Are you willing to do even that? You disputed claims people made about that site. You have been asked to at least go to the site. Are you willing to make even that much effort to dispute this matter intelligently?

Until you show that, my blunt statements evidently have merit.
 
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Ed Edwards

<img src=/Ed.gif>
2 Samuel 21:19 (Geneva Bible, 1599 Edition):
And there was yet another battel in Gob with the Philistims, where Elhanah the sonne of Iaare-oregim, a Bethlehemite slewe Goliath the Gittite: the staffe of whose speare was like a weauers beame.

2 Samuel 21:19 (Geneva Bible, 1560 Edition):
And there was yet another battel in Gob with the Philiftims, where Elhanah the fonne of Iaare-oregim, a Bethlehemite flewe *Goliath the Gittite: the ftaffe of whose fpeare was like a weauers beame.

* Margin note:
That is, Lahmi the Brother of Goliath, whome David flewe 1.Chro 20.5

So this isn't even a Translator's note but a comentary note.

2 Sa 21:19 (KJV1769 Edition with Strong's Numbers, e-sword)
And there was1961 again5750 a battle4421 in Gob1359 with5973 the Philistines,6430 where Elhanan445 the son1121 of Jaare-oregim,3296 a Bethlehemite,1022 slew5221 the brother of (853) Goliath1555 the Gittite,1663 the staff6086 of whose spear2595 was like a weaver's707 beam.4500

Strong's #853 is normaly NOT translated (but is necessary for the structure of Hebrew) into English. But here it is translated to add the agreement with 1.Chro 20.5 This 'brother of' is AN ADDITION TO THE BIBLE by the KJV translators. Just between you, me, and the gatepost - I already knew that 2 Sa 21:19 does not conflict with 1.Chro 20.5
 

Ed Edwards

<img src=/Ed.gif>
Heavenly Pilgrim said:

Seriously Ann, I am not a textual expert, (not that you had not already figured that out) and have a hard enough time understanding English. Whether or not any available manuscripts have it clearer I do not know, but I believe is that the Spirit of God so testified to the translators of that truth that they wrote the KJV to reflect the Spirit’s leading.

Seriously HP, I am not a textual expert, (not that you had not already figured that out) and have a hard enough time understanding English. Whether or not any available manuscripts have it clearer I do not know, but I believe is that the Spirit of God so testified to the translators of that truth that they wrote the NIV to reflect the Spirit’s leading.

Seriously HP, I am not a textual expert. Whether or not any available manuscripts have it clearer I do not know, but I believe is that the Spirit of God so testified to the translators of that truth that they wrote the HCSB2003 to reflect the Spirit’s leading.

2 Timothy 3:16 (HCSB = Christian Standard Bible/ Holman, 2003/ ):
[FONT=Arial, Geneva, Helvetica]All Scripture is inspired by God and is profitable for teaching, for rebuking, for correcting, for training in righteousness,[/FONT]

IMHO, 'all scripture' includes the HCSB, NIV, and all ten of my different KJVs.


QED:


 
Why do all the illustrations given to set forth eviudence that all versions or a particular version is the word of God when NO comparisons are set forth that compare the Words of God as set forth in the KJV against a blank verse or a group of blank verses of another translation such as the NIV?

If we were to do so, then we would have a real question to answer. Are the Words of the KJV God’s inspired Words to man, or is God simply into inspiring blanks in the place of words?
 

Darron Steele

New Member
Heavenly Pilgrim said:
Why do all the illustrations given to set forth eviudence that all versions or a particular version is the word of God when NO comparisons are set forth that compare the Words of God as set forth in the KJV against a blank verse or a group of blank verses of another translation such as the NIV?

If we were to do so, then we would have a real question to answer. Are the Words of the KJV God’s inspired Words to man, or is God simply into inspiring blanks in the place of words?
I am not sure what you are asking.

If you are referring to additions that are translated and versified in the KJV, I can explain that, I hope.

1) The Bible was not given in versified form. Versification first appeared in the 1500's. Old translations such as the W. Tyndale New Testaments of 1526 and 1534, as well as the Great Bible of 1539, 1540, etc. are in chapters with lettered blocks.

2) To start the narration: the Bible was finished when the New Testament was created in the FIRST CENTURY in GREEK and WITHOUT VERSIFICATION.

3) The oldest Greek manuscripts do not contain certain Greek text that the KJV translated. Why? The original Greek text as written in the New Testament-era did not include such text. When that original text was copied, non-original text would not have been there to copy.

4) Over the centuries, additions were made to the Greek text by scribes who had no right to do so.

5) When Greek manuscripts were first edited into printed text in the 1500's, some of those additions were included because no one knew different.

6) Such texts -- included the additions -- got translated into several languages. The texts got versified, and the additions got versified in the process as authentic Bible text.

7) Ancient manuscripts were discovered that showed the additions were additions. Greek texts were made trying to reproduce the original New Testament-era text by using ancient manuscripts.

8) Those texts are getting translated into English. Those texts remove additions, so the translations do not have those additions.
 
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Ed Edwards

<img src=/Ed.gif>
CORRECTED COPY

Ed Edwards said:
In reference to post #226 by antiaging:
your reference:

http://www.acts1711.com/h_w1.htm BAD REFERENCE :(

notes the following sources (not a web reference):

Hort, A.F., Life and Letters of Fenton J.A. Hort, MacMillan and Co., London, 1896, vols. I,II.
Westcott, A., Life and Letters of Brooke Foss Westcott, MacMillan and Co., London, 1903, vols. I,II.

I know some three people who have checked the quotes from the multiple places (like 58 on the internet) that have cut and pasted the same misquotes in their space. The 58 sources are NOT reliable, the 3 people I know are reliable.

One person is Robocop3 who has documented his finds at the Baptist Only Forum: Versions & Translations here at BB. Another person is Brian Tegart (BrianT on some boards) who has a web site at:

http://www.kjv-only.com/

and a defense of Westcott & Hort at:

http://www.westcotthort.com/

These sites are found reliable concerning the benifit of the works of Westcott & Hort without the demeaning belittling of those individuals.

The third studier of the actual works of Westcott & Hort posts at this bb (bulletin board):

http://bibleversiondiscussionboard.yuku.com/forums/6/t/Westcott-and-Hort.html

(beware, some anti- W&H folk post there also)



The KJV found on this page:

http://www.kingjamesman.com/

is the only 'perfect KJV' I've found.

'Perfect KJV' is as defined on this page as being 'non-counterfeit':

"Believers Beware of Counterfeit King James Bibles"

http://www.biblebelievers.com/believers-org/counterfeit-kjv.html

Again, proving my contention:

I think I've found a .PDF file containing one or both of:

Westcott, A., Life and Letters of Brooke Foss Westcott, MacMillan and Co., London, 1903, vol II.

I've downloaded it to my computer. I'll be checking post #226. It would be wise to check that file one's self - to avoid loss of face for not checking the quotes in the first place ;)

Unfortunately, post #226 doesn't quote volume 2 for Westcott.

QED:
 
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DS: 1) The Bible was not given in versified form.

HP: Agreed. Sorry my post was vague or not understandable. As you went along you covered my questions anyway. :thumbs:



DS: 3) The oldest Greek manuscripts do not contain certain Greek text that the KJV translated. Why? The original Greek text as written in the New Testament-era did not include such text.

HP: That is an unproved assumption. What ‘might be true’ is that the oldest manuscripts 'we now have available' do not include such texts. That again IMO is an unproven theory, but could well be the case. That in no wise proves what you claim in that ‘the oldest GK’ do not contain the texts. Just because we do not have some of the texts is NO sign that the oldest in fact did not contain the texts or that older texts than we have to date might be found that in fact prove that point. I believe there is clear evidence that the oldest texts did in fact contain those words, but that will come in time. Am I confusing you or are you following me on this point so far?
 

Ed Edwards

<img src=/Ed.gif>
Heavenly Pilgrim said:

Why do all the illustrations given to set forth eviudence that all versions or a particular version is the word of God when NO comparisons are set forth that compare the Words of God as set forth in the KJV against a blank verse or a group of blank verses of another translation such as the NIV?


If we were to do so, then we would have a real question to answer. Are the Words of the KJV God’s inspired Words to man, or is God simply into inspiring blanks in the place of words?

Tee hee! (1980s expression, now: :laugh: )

I'd rather have a presupposition of my signature block than accept your presupposition that the KJV is the standard by which all Bibles are to be measured when it obvious that the Antioch Lines added lots of words to the original text. Nice try, buy NO DEAL :saint:
 

Darron Steele

New Member
Darron Steele said:
3) The oldest Greek manuscripts do not contain certain Greek text that the KJV translated. Why? The original Greek text as written in the New Testament-era did not include such text.
Heavenly Pilgrim said:
..That is an unproved assumption. What ‘might be true’ is that the oldest manuscripts 'we now have available' do not include such texts. That again IMO is an unproven theory, but could well be the case. That in no wise proves what you claim in that ‘the oldest GK’ do not contain the texts. Just because we do not have some of the texts is NO sign that the oldest in fact did not contain the texts or that older texts than we have to date might be found that in fact prove that point. I believe there is clear evidence that the oldest texts did in fact contain those words, but that will come in time. Am I confusing you or are you following me on this point so far?
What is factually true is that the most or all of the oldest surviving manuscripts do not have the added texts.

That is a fact. That is not a matter of opinion. What ancient manuscripts are known to have survived and what is in them is a matter of fact.

Now, why would the oldest manuscripts not having certain text be a sign the text was not original? I can try to explain it, but I doubt that you would accept it.

The less time between an original and a copy of any writing, the less time there is for people to make changes -- whether accidental or not. So, when most or all the old copies do not have certain text which later copies have, the best explanation is normally that the ancient copies predate additions.

Hence, when ancient manuscripts of the New Testament lack certain text that later manuscripts have, it is strong evidence that the text is added. When all or nearly all the ancient manuscripts lack such text, it is solid.

Now, you can decide that it does not convince you. I suspect you will go on with `Well maybe, well maybe, well maybe...' I think you are going to continue with `It is in my KJV, so I will insist that it is original' no matter what. However, I hope that explains it.
 
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ED: I'd rather have a presupposition of my signature block than accept your presupposition that the KJV is the standard by which all Bibles are to be measured when it obvious that the Antioch Lines added lots of words to the original text. Nice try, buy NO DEAL

HP: I would say that is not the KJV necessarily but the MT, the 95% of all textual evidence that is a clear standard by which to measure all other texts. I know full well how hard that question was for you. It is hard, yea impossible, to measure nothing against solid evidence to the contrary.
 

Darron Steele

New Member
Heavenly Pilgrim said:


HP: I would say that is not the KJV necessarily but the MT, the 95% of all textual evidence that is a clear standard by which to measure all other texts. I know full well how hard that question was for you. It is hard, yea impossible, to measure nothing against solid evidence to the contrary.
Truth is not determined by majority vote.

How scary it would be if judicial systems disregarded the closest witnesses and simply took polls. Guilt or innocence is a matter of absolute truth. Justice would collapse if we based indictments and verdicts if we put polls above the closest witnesses.

What was in the original manuscripts is a matter of absolute truth. If the majority of manuscripts come from 1000 and more years after the New Testament era, and they differ from the ancient manuscripts, I am going to go with the ancient manuscripts.
 
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rbell

Active Member
I always find it humorous when KJVO proponents argue with points such as "but the majority says..." and "but it sounds better..." as if those are valid reasons...and as if non-KJVO's could get away with using such.
 

antiaging

New Member
Darron Steele said:
Truth is not determined by majority vote.

How scary it would be if judicial systems disregarded the closest witnesses and simply took polls. Guilt or innocence is a matter of absolute truth. Justice would collapse if we based indictments and verdicts if we put polls above the closest witnesses.

What was in the original manuscripts is a matter of absolute truth. If the majority of manuscripts come from 1000 and more years after the New Testament era, and they differ from the ancient manuscripts, I am going to go with the ancient manuscripts.

The majority text and the massoretic text are accurate copies of the original manuscripts, copied, recopied and passed down through the centuries.
There is no reason to doubt that the majority text is the real authentic text of the greek new testament that was circulated in asia minor by the apostles and their followers. Accurate copies were made and carried by missionaries to different places. [The Isaiah scroll in the dead sea scrolls is massoretic text giving good evidence that the massoretic text is the original.]
There is reason to doubt what came out of Alexandria.
Missionaries from Antioch carried the New testament scripture copies to different lands, and in Alexandria they were change by gnostics in the 4th century.

The Textus receptus is practially identical to the byzantine/majority text.
For all practical purposes it is the same text.
Example:
[Jane went to school. Jane traveled to school. Jane walked to school. Those statements say the same thing in different words. Practically identical for practical purposes.]
Copies of the majority text as rendered in the textus receptus can be traced back to AD 150 with old Latin versions. [I'm talking about the text; not the parchiaments; they perish with age.]
The King James version is the most accurate translation of the majority text new testament and massoretic text old testament.
We have in the KJV accurate readings of the original writings of the inspired writers that God used to transmit His Word.

(11) Did God lose the words of the originals when the "autographs" were destroyed?

Although we do not have the Autographa (the very first scripts) today, we have the Apographa (copies) which reflect the Autographa. All the divinely inspired words of the Autographa have been providentially preserved in the Apographa underlying the KJV. We affirm with the Westminster divines that the Autographa "being immediately inspired by God [are] by His singular care and providence kept pure in all ages" (Westminster Confession of Faith, I:VIII).

Providentially speaking, the Autographa were neither "lost" nor "destroyed." The purity of God’s Word has been faithfully maintained throughout the whole transmission of the Byzantine/Majority/Received Text, and finally attained in the Apographa of the Hebrew Masoretic Text for the Old Testament and the Greek Textus Receptus for the New Testament underlying the KJV.

By faith, we believe in God’s promise that He will allow none of His words to be lost. Ps 12:6-7 says, "The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times. Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever." Jesus declared in Matt 24:35, "Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away." In Matt 5:18. Jesus promised, "For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled."

http://www.biblefortoday.org/Articles/answers.htm
 

Darron Steele

New Member
antiaging said:
The majority text and the massoretic text are accurate copies of the original manuscripts, copied, recopied and passed down through the centuries.
There is no reason to doubt that the majority text is the real authentic text of the greek new testament that was circulated in asia minor by the apostles and their followers. Accurate copies were made and carried by missionaries to different places. [The Isaiah scroll in the dead sea scrolls is massoretic text giving good evidence that the massoretic text is the original.]
Actually, there is good reason.

The majority of manuscripts are from 1000 years or more after the New Testament era. The ancient manuscripts are much closer. When the ancient and later majority differ, there is very good reason to doubt the majority.

There is reason to doubt what came out of Alexandria.
Not all the ancient manuscripts came from Egypt.

That is something that the people who feed you the `funny Kool Aid' do not tell you. The ancient manuscripts were found in Egypt -- and in Europe and in Asia. Attempts to link all ancient manuscripts to Egypt are speculative at best.

Missionaries from Antioch carried the New testament scripture copies to different lands, and in Alexandria they were change by gnostics in the 4th century.
Well, that is interesting, because no one knows who made these ancient manuscripts. Gnostics created their own set of `scriptures.' Conspiracy speculations about Gnostic tampering with the Christian Scriptures are contrary to evidence, as the ancient manuscripts contain readings which Gnostics would not have liked.

Also, your fourth century alteration dates do not affect ancient manuscripts of the second or third centuries.
Copies of the majority text as rendered in the textus receptus can be traced back to AD 150 with old Latin versions. [I'm talking about the text; not the parchiaments; they perish with age.]
The Old Latin is of the Western text.

It is not Byzantine.

The Western text contains a lot of wild readings contrary to both the ancient manuscripts and the KJV.
...
By faith, we believe in God’s promise that He will allow none of His words to be lost. Ps 12:6-7 says, "The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times. Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever." Jesus declared in Matt 24:35, "Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away." In Matt 5:18. Jesus promised, "For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled."

http://www.biblefortoday.org/Articles/answers.htm
Blah blah blah.

Did you know that Dr. D. A. Waite's doctoral education was not in any area of Biblical Studies? That is not something he says a lot about. His doctorate is not in the stuff he writes books and web articles about, and his personal studies show that he has failed to make an expert of himself.

No one is denying preservation of the Scriptures. The problem is your attempt to dictate the ways God `should' have preserved the text. You and D. A. Waite want it to be in a single volume in English and primarily in that manner. Well, God did not choose that mode of preservation.
 
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antiaging

New Member
Darron Steele said:
Actually, there is good reason.

The majority of manuscripts are from 1000 years or more after the New Testament era. The ancient manuscripts are much closer. When the ancient and later majority differ, there is very good reason to doubt the majority.

Not all the ancient manuscripts came from Egypt.

That is something that the people who feed you the `funny Kool Aid' do not tell you. The ancient manuscripts were found in Egypt -- and in Europe and in Asia. Attempts to link all ancient manuscripts to Egypt are speculative at best.

Well, that is interesting, because no one knows who made these ancient manuscripts. Gnostics created their own set of `scriptures.' Conspiracy speculations about Gnostic tampering with the Christian Scriptures are contrary to evidence, as the ancient manuscripts contain readings which Gnostics would not have liked.

Also, your fourth century alteration dates do not affect ancient manuscripts of the second or third centuries.
The Old Latin is of the Western text.

It is not Byzantine.

The Western text contains a lot of wild readings contrary to both the ancient manuscripts and the KJV.Blah blah blah.

Did you know that Dr. D. A. Waite's doctoral education was not in any area of Biblical Studies? That is not something he says a lot about. His doctorate is not in the stuff he writes books and web articles about, and his personal studies show that he has failed to make an expert of himself.

No one is denying preservation of the Scriptures. The problem is your attempt to dictate the ways God `should' have preserved the text. You and D. A. Waite want it to be in a single volume in English and primarily in that manner. Well, God did not choose that mode of preservation.

Note: The original autographs of every book, epistle etc. are only a single volume.
If they are really preserved, it must be an accurate copy of each single volume.
The idea that every text, version, [when they obviously differ so much] contains the real Word of God is absurd. It contradicts the nature of truth.
Like the man said, "God only wrote one bible".

If it is preserved which one is it.

It seems to me that you and me are talking about two different things when we say majority text.
The disciples were first called Christians in Antioch. From antioch accurate copies of the original autograph, in greek, were carried to different regions by missionaries. The made their way to Ireland, all over asia minor, Europe. The majority text is the unaltered greek manuscripts, some translated into other languages, that all agree with each other, and come from different lands. They are for all practical purposes accurate copies of the original words of the apostles.
The accurate copies were carried to Alexandria also. In Alexandria Oregen, valentinus (or whoever) had their Egyptian philosophic gnostic schools. The changed the scriptures producing the corrrupted Alexandrian text. They deleted many scriptures and made changes to others.
The real majority text has the scriptures that they deleted, including 1Jn. 5:7.
Accurate renderings of the real majority text were made by several men including Erasmus; this came to be known as the textus receptus or received text.
The new testament of the King James bible is accurately translated from this textus receptus.
I have the whole Robert Stewart article refuting James White's claims. Here is part of it.

According to the church historian Eusebius, the apostle John was an
elder in the church at Ephesus, Asia Minor, and John was personally
involved in collecting and forming the writings of the New Testament.

It can be safely said that the original hand written autographs of
John, 1 & 2 Corinthians, Galatians, Ephesians, Philippians,
Colossians, 1 & 2 Thessalonians, 1 & 2 Timothy, Titus, Philemon, 1 & 2
Peter, 1 & 2 & 3 John, and the Revelation were held in Asia Minor and
Greece.

The Christians who fled Jerusalem before its desolation took their
precious manuscripts with them. Scholars estimate that at least
twenty, and possibly as many as twenty-four, of the original
autographs of the twenty-seven New Testament books were held in the
region of Asia Minor and Greece.

That the church jealously guarded over these writings is easily
confirmed. For example Irenaeus (AD 140 - 202, who had moved out from
Asia Minor to Lyons, France, by AD 177) records that a disputed
reading of Revelation 13:18 had been settled by examining "all the
most approved and ancient copies" and by consulting men who had
personally spoken about the disputed reading with the apostle John in
Ephesus. Likewise Tertullian (about AD 208) is on record challenging
heretics to examine the original writings of the apostles and
specifically states that they were still available for examination in
such places as Corinth, Philippi, Thessalonica, and Ephesus, etc.

With the need for accurate copies of the New Testament to be made, and
with the advent of the Christian "school of Antioch" (and affiliated
scriptoria), the early Greek speaking church went to great lengths to
ensure that reliable copies of the original autographs were made. The
New Testament of the Greek speaking churches, in the eastern portion
of the Roman Empire, was known as the Greek Vulgate.

The eastern Greek speaking portion of the Roman Empire later became
known as the Byzantine Empire (AD 330 - 1453).
In the east, the Greek churches preserved the
Byzantine text, the traditional text of the Greek speaking churches.
In the west, the Roman Catholic Latin speaking churches had the Latin
Vulgate compiled by Jerome (AD 345 - 419).
The early church had to face several perversions of the Christian
Gospel, but one of the most dangerous of those perversions was (and
is) Gnosticism. An early promoter of Gnosticism was Basilides who
taught in Alexandria about AD 125 - 150. He fabricated his own
corrupt version of the Gospel (and composed apocryphal psalms), and
founded his own School of Gnosticism in Alexandria.

Many consider the founder of the pseudo-Christian cult of Gnosticism
to be Valentinus, who was born in Egypt and educated in Alexandria.
Valentinus then went to Rome about AD 136, professing Christianity but
cultivating his own Gnostic followers, until he left in AD 165,
returning to Alexandria via Cyprus. He founded two Schools of
Gnosticism, one in Rome and the other in Alexandria. He also
fabricated his own corrupt version of the Gospel, known as the Gospel
of Truth.
Marcion and Tatian. The
Gnostic Marcion was expelled from the church in Rome in AD 144. One
of the Christian "Church Fathers", Irenaeus, wrote: "Marcion and his
followers have betaken themselves to mutilating the Scriptures, not
acknowledging some books at all, and curtailing the gospel according
to Luke and the Epistles of Paul, they assert that these alone are
authentic which they themselves have shortened." (Ante-Nicene Fathers;
Vol. I; pp 434-435)

Tatian is notorious for fabricating his Diatessaron in which he
introduced corrupt readings to a harmonisation of the four Gospels in
support of Gnosticism. Bruce M Metzger writes: "Tatian's Harmony of
the Gospels contained several textual alterations which lent support
to ascetic or encratite views." (The Text of the New Testament; Bruce
M Metzger; Oxford University Press; 1964; p 201)

Clement of Alexandria (AD 150-215) attempted to fuse Gnosticism with
Christianity in a more skilful way than Basilides and Valentinus.
Clement was a follower of Tatian and succeeded Pantaenus as Principal
at the theological School of Alexandria in AD 190.
There is abundant historical evidence that Gnostics produced corrupt
manuscripts in Alexandria. In 1945/46 no less than thirteen Gnostic
bound volumes were discovered at Nag Hammadi, near Chenoboskion, in
Egypt, which contained more than fifty Gnostic sacred writings and
scriptures including, the Gospel of Mary, the Gospel of Thomas, the
Gospel of Philip, the Gospel according to the Hebrews, the Gospel
according to the Egyptians, the Apocalypse of Peter, etc. Both
Clement and Origen refer to, and quote from, these apocryphal and
corrupt Gnostic scriptures in their own writings.

To quote but one example, the book "The Beginnings of Christianity"
(Floris Books, 1991, ISBN 0-86315-209-0), by Andrew Welburn,
highlights a letter written by Clement of Alexandria which refers to
the secret Gnostic Gospel of Mark which, it is claimed, was the
original Gnostic edition of the Gospel written by Mark in Alexandria
(they claimed Mark was a Gnostic). To quote from the letter: "Mark
came over to Alexandria ... he composed a more spiritual Gospel for
the use of those who were being initiated ... when he died, he left
his composition to the church in Alexandria, where it is even yet most
carefully guarded, being read only to those who are being initiated
into the great Mysteries." (p 98)

I am left scratching my head as to why James R White should have made
such an erroneous and misleading statement in saying that there is "no
evidence that 'Gnostics' had anything to do with the production of
manuscripts associated with Alexandria. This is a mere assertion
without historical facts to back it up."
--by Robert Stewart
 
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rbell

Active Member
antiaging said:
Like the man said, "God only wrote one bible".

Using your logic, now all we have to figure out is, "Which one God wrote:"

1611
1769
1823

(and why did He wait so long?)

Or...we could use common sense.......naaah, where's the fun in that?
 

antiaging

New Member
rbell said:
Using your logic, now all we have to figure out is, "Which one God wrote:"

1611
1769
1823

(and why did He wait so long?)

Or...we could use common sense.......naaah, where's the fun in that?

The 1769 edition upgraded weights, measures and money to a more modern usage.
It is the same version as the original 1611; just an upgraded edition.
 

Darron Steele

New Member
antiaging said:
The 1769 edition upgraded weights, measures and money to a more modern usage.
It is the same version as the original 1611; just an upgraded edition.
Actually, it is not.

First, compare the 1611 KJV and the 1769 KJV at John 16:25; you will notice a "but" which was not there in the original 1611 KJV. In 1604-1611, the Bishops' Bible had not "but" but the Geneva Bible did. The 1611 KJV retained the Bishops' Bible reading here. This reading was retained in the 1638 KJV. Eventually, "but" was added to the KJV as we now see it.

Why the difference. The printed Greek texts vary. Greek texts from Erasmus had no equivalent for "but" while the influential Greek texts from Stephanus did. So, the KJV has undergone change in underlying source Greek text.

Second, compare Acts 2:38 in the 1611 KJV and 1769 KJV. You would notice a comma in the 1611 KJV which is not present in the 1769 KJV. Those commas functioned like modern hyphens for the clause about baptism. The 1769 KJV is what made that change -- one man, Benjamin Blayney, struck the second comma. Therefore, the 1769 KJV makes baptism appear to be a cause for salvation. From this, the error of `salvation upon baptism' burst onto the English-reading church in the early 1800's. That comma mattered.
 
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