First, lemme say, Pastor Anderson, that like virtually ALL KJVOs, you avoid the "WHERE'S THE SCRIPTURE?" question like a dose of castor oil. What are you guys ashamed of? Whatarya trying to hide?
KJVO is a theory about Scripture. To get outta the theory/myth/guesswork bucket, it MUST have SCRIPTURAL SUPPORT! Otherwise, one is trying to place that doctrine ABOVE SCRIPTURE!
This exactly what I said the purpose of the article was not: to discuss KJV only-ism.
In other words, we're supposta just accept your article as written, with no opposition? Yeah, RIIIGHT!
The discussion was meant to be with those who believe the Bible,
Everyone here believes the Bible. What mosta us do NOT believe is the man-made KJVO myth.
not with confused people whose authority is several different Bibles and texts.
It appears YOU are your own authority, reaching into a hat, pulling out one version, & declaring "This is IT!" without the first quark of SCRIPTURAL SUPPORT from that version. Without Scriptural support, what's your basis for being KJVO?
You are your own authority - you may as well be God since you decide what the truth is after looking at all your assortments of translations and texts.
That's exactly what YOU have done! Picked-N-Chosen! You cannot deny it! Without SCRIPTURAL SUPPORT, you're juse GUESSING.
I have one God - the King James Bible
I could use the nine-letter "B" word here, but your error is so obvious that I shall let it speak for itself. You seem to think the words are greater than the Speaker of them.
- not 10 different Gods who all say things a little differently.
The same thing is found in the KJV and every other valid Bible version. Was Jehoiachin age 8 or 18 when he began to reign?
Anyone who uses multiple Bibles (e.g. a KJV and an NIV) is polytheistic because they believe in more than one God (In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word WAS God!)
Sinse WHEN did Bibles become gods and not the WORDS of THE God?
Do you actually believe that the apostle Paul used 2 different versions of the OT? That is nonsense.
Do you KNOW he didn't? How can you PROVE it?
But I know JESUS HIMSELF used a different version of Isaiah besides what is translated into the KJV. Simply compare what JESUS READ ALOUD in Luke 4:16-21 with what's written in Isaiah 42:7 & in Isaiah 61:1-3. Then, come back and tell us JESUS used the wrong version. If He didn't, then the KJV men musta translated the wrong version, right? The only other plausible explanation is the OBVIOUS one...GOD IS NOT LIMITED TO JUST ONE VERSION!
Again...Sonce the KJVO myth is about Scripture, it MUST BE SUPPORTED by Scripture in order to be true. WHERE'S THE SCRIPTURAL SUPPORT FOR THE KJVO DOCTRINE? IF YOU WANT ANYONE TO BELIEVE A WORD YOU SAY, DON'T IGNORE THIS QUESTION AGAIN! Your God=KJV has destroyed 99/100 of your credibility anyway.