Folks, Mr Smyth provided absolutely no support for his claim. Next he suggests I thought John Wycliffe produced the 1395 revision. No quote will be forth coming except I referred to the 1395 version as "Wycliffe's Bible" which is how the LV is referenced. "
I have no interest in petty quibbling when the facts are here for all to read.
Van, the record shows that you said, "Wycliffe's translation (circa 1395) has her." That in fact is not
Wycliffe's translation, as Wycliffe had been dead long before 1395. I called it a fake Wycliffe version. You then posted "In my search on line, the two versions both had a women." That in fact is false, the translation produced by Wycliffe has a man. I don't believe the 1395 version has a woman, either. But, that is my judgement rather than established fact (I do have evidence, but you have been unreceptive to the evidence I've already offered, especially in regard to the overhwelming majority of Greek manuscripts against "her", but you still said, "I did not see a compelling argument for either, The gender is uncertain [yet, you still go with 'her'].")
OTOH, he suggested none of the early translations said "her." Here is the quote I showed him his error, but he never said "oops.
I said, "Ditto for agreement in all early translations in any language of the Bible.[they have 'her']". I didn't say English translations. A translation 1300 years after the fact is not "early". I had in mind the translations made in the first few centuries after Christ, like the early Latin versions, Aramaic, Syriac, Coptic, Nubian, and other translations before English existed. I also had in mind those translations from Greek (early translation of the Greek, so that we know what the earliest Greek manuscripts said, to know him or her). The Wycliffe Bible and the fake Wycliffe Bible aren't based on Greek sources.