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Because they see some mistakes/errors even within TR, but the Lord to them inspired into English the 1611 just as He did Original 66 Books, so no mistakes/errors!Why do some people say that the KJV is better than the Original Greek?
It makes them extremely uncomfortable to even entertain the idea that the English Bible can have a mistake. So if the KJV is set as the standard for what the Bible should say, everything else, even the Greek must be wrong.Why do some people say that the KJV is better than the Original Greek?
It makes them extremely uncomfortable to even entertain the idea that the English Bible can have a mistake. So if the KJV is set as the standard for what the Bible should say, everything else, even the Greek must be wrong.
If you don't know any Greek, the KJV would certainly be betterWhy do some people say that the KJV is better than the Original Greek?
That is why some of them would prefer translators not translate off Greek/Hebrew texts, but off Kjv itself!Exactly. When KJV-only advocates claim or assume that the KJV is the final authority, they end up having to diminish or undermine the greater authority of the preserved Scriptures in the original languages. the Kjv itself!
They have to try to avoid or ignore the fact that later KJV editors/printers accepted the greater authority of the preserved Scriptures in the original languages when they made some revisions/changes/corrections to the 1611 edition of the KJV. Some of them will only admit to errors in the 1611 edition in cases where they can try to blame them on the printer or typesetters.
Do you know where we can find the Original Greek?Why do some people say that the KJV is better than the Original Greek?
I'm not of the opinion that I should translate the Greek using the AV, but I definitely hold to the firm belief that I cannot trust most of the translators that are doing the work today, versus the ones that were doing the work during the Reformation.That is why some of them would prefer translators not translate off Greek/Hebrew texts, but off Kjv itself!
Family 35 is to be the identity of the New Tesramennt text. The constant witness being the text which all manuscript types agree at 100%. While the typical f35 reading may be of also MT, but sometimes not when the reading is unique to one manuscript type.Do you know where we can find the Original Greek?
Most people here seem to have a problem nailing it down.
What's more, since all Greek text collations have differences ( TR vs. CT. vs. MT, NAS 1 through 25, USB 1-5 ), and no one manuscript, uncial, papyrus or other bit agrees exactly with each other ( much less "Aleph" with "B", since they differ in over 2000 places ), then where does one find "the original", except in the vast number of inherited copies?
But to answer the question:
I have no idea.
The AV is not better than the original Greek ( though hard to pin down for some people, it seems ).
While I am of the opinion that it is an English translation that has been shown to not be absolutely perfect.
At the same time, I believe it to be far superior to any of today's English translations, bar none.
Despite the fact that its English is "dated" compared to the less-concise and varied language known as English that we use ( mainly in America ) today, I see don't see a problem with using it.
I'm not of the opinion that I should translate the Greek using the AV, but I definitely hold to the firm belief that I cannot trust most of the translators that are doing the work today, versus the ones that were doing the work during the Reformation.
From my perspective, today's motives for translating into English are far different than they were 400 years ago.
Which manuscript of family 35 is the manuscript. None are the same. In fact, Pickering produce a f35 NT that doesnt match a single f35 manuscriptFamily 35 is to be the identity of the New Tesramennt text. The constant witness being the text which all manuscript types agree at 100%. While the typical f35 reading may be of also MT, but sometimes not when the reading is unique to one manuscript type.
At the same time, I believe it to be far superior to any of today's English translations, bar none.
Well, Peter S. Ruckman in his, The Christian's Handbook of MANUSCRIPT EVIDENCE, Chapter 8, Correcting the Greek with the English, Pages 115-138. A.V. not K.J.V. The A.V. 1611 corrects the corrupt Greek, etc.Why do some people say that the KJV is better than the Original Greek?
Are you really that naive? Yes, Pickering produce a f35 GNT. The variants chosen are to explain the other varians. Are tyically to be readings found across all or most manuscript types.Which manuscript of family 35 is the manuscript. None are the same. In fact, Pickering produce a f35 NT that doesnt match a single f35 manuscript
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"The constant witness being the text which all manuscript types agree at 100%."Are you really that naive? Yes, Pickering produce a f35 GNT. The variants chosen are to explain the other varians. Are tyically to be readings found across all or most manuscript types.
Are you really that naive? . Are tyically to be readings found across all or most manuscript types.
Do you know where we can find the Original Greek?
Most people here seem to have a problem nailing it down.
Are you saying that the translators on the Nas/Esv/Nkjv/Niv were not saved, heretics, or somehow inferior to 1611 Kjv team?Do you know where we can find the Original Greek?
Most people here seem to have a problem nailing it down.
What's more, since all Greek text collations have differences ( TR vs. CT. vs. MT, NAS 1 through 25, USB 1-5 ), and no one manuscript, uncial, papyrus or other bit agrees exactly with each other ( much less "Aleph" with "B", since they differ in over 2000 places ), then where does one find "the original", except in the vast number of inherited copies?
But to answer the question:
I have no idea.
The AV is not better than the original Greek ( though hard to pin down for some people, it seems ).
While I am of the opinion that it is an English translation that has been shown to not be absolutely perfect.
At the same time, I believe it to be far superior to any of today's English translations, bar none.
Despite the fact that its English is "dated" compared to the less-concise and varied language known as English that we use ( mainly in America ) today, I see don't see a problem with using it.
I'm not of the opinion that I should translate the Greek using the AV, but I definitely hold to the firm belief that I cannot trust most of the translators that are doing the work today, versus the ones that were doing the work during the Reformation.
From my perspective, today's motives for translating into English are far different than they were 400 years ago.