I will answer each of the following *without* explaining them using conflicting Greek sources. Will that make a difference for you? We shall see.Originally posted by Bob Krajcik:
Just a few questions to help clarify your position, giving you ample opportunity to clearly state your position so it will not be possible for me to misrepresent you, since you will have finally clearly stated your position.
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I am aware you could explain these things away by using the conflicting Greek sources, but what about English? You have said the KJV Bible is so hard to read, so why must we instead have to learn Greek to finally get it right? Or will you do it for us, so you will be the channel of communication?

Also, keep in mind that finding problems with other versions is not the same as proving the KJV inerrant. And I am not even remotely trying to prove that whereever a modern version differs from the KJV, the KJV is wrong and the modern version is right.
Yes, both are trustworthy.[*]Is my KJV Bible trustworthy with Mark 3:5 and John 2:15? Are the versions that take out the words “without a cause” in Matthew 5:22 trustworthy, even though they show Jesus a sinner for being angry?
It is not a sin for being angry, but the potential is there. Does having "a cause", as the KJV has, remove this potential? How is it even possible to be angry "without a cause" in the first place? When Cain was angry and killed Able, he had a cause. When Hitler killed the Jews, he had a cause. Nero had a cause. Satan has a cause. The Antichrist will have a cause. Certainly not righteous causes, but the text of the KJV doesn't say "righteous cause", it just says "cause".
Also, the verse doesn't even say "sin". It doesn't even say "judgment". It says "*danger* of judgement". If I were to say "whosoever is camping in the mountains shall be in danger of bear attack", does that mean every person who camps in the mountain will, with 100% certainty, be eaten by a bear? Of course not. If I were to say "whosoever shall kill shall be in danger of the judgment" (as it says in the immediately prior verse in the KJV, without using the phrase "without a cause"!), does that mean that every time someone is killed, the one who did the killing is sinning? God killed Ananias and Sapphira in Acts 5. Did God sin, according to the Matt 5:21 in the KJV? He did if your argument is valid.
Yes, both are trustworthy. It was not uncommon to combine two references to the OT and only mention the dominant prophet. This is what the KJV did in Matt 27:9, which is attributed to Jeremiah, but mostly comes from Zech.[*]Is my KJV Bible trustworthy where it says “prophets” in Mark 1:2, and are other versions trustworthy where they say “Isaiah” in Mark 1:2?
Yes, both are trustworthy. The KJV has added "the brother of" to this passage, as indicated by the italics. There is no textual varation here in the Hebrew. If the modern versions are wrong, so is every Hebrew Bible in history. Maybe, just maybe, there is an explanation that you personally have not thought of for the reading.[*]Is my KJV Bible trustworthy where it says David killed Goliath, and are the other versions that say Elhanan killed Goliath also trustworthy?
Yes, they are both trustworthy. If omitting those words make a Bible untrustworthy, the KJV is untrustworthy for omitting them in Luke 11.[*]Is my KJV Bible trustworthy in Matthew 6:13, and are the versions that delete those fourteen words used in my Bile also trustworthy?
Yes, both are trustworthy. The context is riches, and in the immediately prior verse, Christ says ""How hard it is for the rich to enter the kingdom of God!" The verse you mention says "But Jesus said again 'Children, how hard it is to enter the kingdom of God! It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle than for a rich man to enter the kingdom of God.'", so obviously the meaning is the same in context.[*]Is my KJV Bible trustworthy in Mark 10:24, and are the versions that make it hard for everyone to enter the kingdom of God, as they have Mark 10:24, also trustworthy?
Yes, the are both trustworthy. Matt 4:4. If having the words present in one verse and not the other makes a Bible untrustworthy, the ending of the Lord's prayer (as discussed above) makes the KJV untrustworthy.[*]Is my KJV Bible trustworthy in Luke 4:4, and are the versions that say, well, they don’t say what we are to live by, but are they also trustworthy there?
Yes, they are both trustworthy. First, the context makes it clear where the belief is to be placed (verses 35 and 40). If not being specific, in every single verse, about what to believe in makes a Bible untrustworthy, the KJV is untrustworthy in Mark 9:23, Rom 1:16, Rom 10:4, 1 Cor 7:12, etc.[*]Is my KJV Bible trustworthy where it tells me whom to believe in, with John 6:47, and are the versions that do not say whom to believe in there also trustworthy?
Yes, they are both trustworthy. I won't get into the manuscript issues here (because I said I wouldn't), but modern versions support and teach fasting in many other passages.[*]Is my KJV Bible trustworthy where it tells me about fasting, in verses Acts 10:30; 1 Corinthians 7:5; 2 Corinthians 6:5; 2 Corinthians 11:27; Matthew 17:21; Mark 9:29; and are the versions that delete reference to fasting also trustworthy?
Casting out demons is not done by following a specific formula.[*]Are there times fasting is indeed needful, as my KJV Bible says, or is that not true, and if it is true, how is one to know that from the versions that delete reference to fasting?
Because they are usually not really contradictory. When you find a "contradiction" *internal* to the KJV, do you not find a way to explain it, or trust that it's not, anyway? Why not put forth the same effort here? Also, I have been basically asking YOU (and others) that very question about 1605, since there were already 16 complete English Bibles in existence by that time.[*]Must multiple choice version hopping be used to find the truth, and when the truth is found, how is a person to know they have the truth, if contradictory sources are to be perused?
Maybe I don't understand your question, but my first impression is that it is a ridiculous question. Besides, it is not even about the words of scripture, but about the interpretation. Even if we had the KJV as the *only* Christian Bible available, we'd *still* have all those groups.[*]Should a person be a Christian, Baptist, Buddhist, Muslim, Roman Catholic, Jehovah Witness, Mormon, etc etc all at once to be sure of having all the bases covered, if they are required to peruse different and contradictory versions of “trustworthy” versions to get it right?
Yes, they are both trustworthy. I could not find a version that leaves it out, and even if there is one, not having specific words present in all relevant verses does not make a Bible untrustworthy, as I've demonstrated a couple times above using the KJV.[*]Is my KJV Bible trustworthy at Romans 14:10 where it tells me about the Judgment Seat of Christ, showing we will be giving account to God, and showing Christ to be God, and are the versions that leave out the Judgment Seat of Christ et al also trustworthy?
God bless,
Brian