• Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

Lordship Salvation?

Status
Not open for further replies.

webdog

Active Member
Site Supporter
Amy.G said:
"For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish, but have 1000 years of life.

You are surely not serious. I am speechless.

People were saved in the OT by faith. Same as us.

Abraham was made righteous because he believed God.
Not to mention, if mankind is saved in the same manner, what happens to those who died 3000 year ago? Since they have had their 1000 year run, what happened to them for the next 2000 years?
 

npetreley

New Member
J. Jump said:
It's not something to be "tried." It just something that is. The verbs are subjunctive. You can't change that.

"loved" - aorist active indicitive meaning God was the one doing the action and His love is a certainty.

"gave" - aorist active indicitive meaning again God was the one doing the action and His giving was a certainty.

"believes" - present active participle - meaning either a continual action or present identity either way its saying the same thing.

"should perish" - is the verb with "not" inserted to negate it. It is Second aorist middle subjunctive (hence the word should). Should is not a certainty, but a possibility.

"have" - present active subjunctive

Again you simply can not change the tenses of the verbs. They are what they are. And we can either believe what they are telling us or we can simply choose to ignore them and continue on with church tradition despite the incorrectness.

So I'll ask you does faith in Jesus as Savior produces certain results or possible results?

LOL, I know the tenses. I just made the subjunctive obvious in English with the word "would", and it still didn't help your case at all.

Look, it's obvious that you'll always see "1,000 years" wherever it fits your doctrine. It's obvious to me you're self-deceived. We're never going to agree on this. I also agree it's heresy, and I try to avoid that word. But that's what works-based salvation is. Heresy. IMO, you just look incredibly silly trying to make this case, but go for it. It's all yours.
 

Amy.G

New Member
webdog said:
Not to mention, if mankind is saved in the same manner, what happens to those who died 3000 year ago? Since they have had their 1000 year run, what happened to them for the next 2000 years?
My head is still spinning from the eternal life=1000 years statement. I can't imagine how they will twist scripture to explain that one.
 

npetreley

New Member
Amy.G said:
My head is still spinning from the eternal life=1000 years statement. I can't imagine how they will twist scripture to explain that one.

It's an a-priori decoder ring. Wherever it fits the doctrine, the meaning must be 1,000 years. Wherever it doesn't, it means eternal. That's what happens when you start with a conclusion and then apply it to scripture.
 

J. Jump

New Member
I just made the subjunctive obvious in English with the word "would", and it still didn't help your case at all.
The subjunctive is already made "obvious" in the English with the word "SHOULD."

For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

IMO, you just look incredibly silly trying to make this case, but go for it.
These statements always amaze me. You say you believe in a certain eternal salvation, yet you try to use texts that don't have certainties in them, but possibilities and yet we are the ones that are silly. Okay. Good is bad and bad is good. That is the times we are living in. Right is wrong and wrong is right.

The bottom line is the text doesn't say what you want it to say. It didn't in the other passage we talked about. It doesn't in this one and yet we are the ones that are spouting heresy. Yeah right.

It's obvious to me you're self-deceived.
You are entitled to your opinion, but that's all it is. You have no foundation to support it.
 
Last edited by a moderator:

J. Jump

New Member
It's an a-priori decoder ring. Wherever it fits the doctrine, the meaning must be 1,000 years. Wherever it doesn't, it means eternal.
You know this line of nonsense gets old after awhile. You would think you "smart" folks could come up with something more original every now and then to slam us "heresy spouters."

Aionios NEVER means without beginning or end. So once again you just spread falsities instead of showing that we are wrong or better yet showing you are right.
 

J. Jump

New Member
Not to mention, if mankind is saved in the same manner, what happens to those who died 3000 year ago? Since they have had their 1000 year run, what happened to them for the next 2000 years?
This question isn't even logical. No one has "had their 1000 year run." The 1000 years refers to the coming reign of Christ. That hasn't happened yet for anyone.
 

Amy.G

New Member
J. Jump said:
You know this line of nonsense gets old after awhile. You would think you "smart" folks could come up with something more original every now and then to slam us "heresy spouters."

Aionios NEVER means without beginning or end. So once again you just spread falsities instead of showing that we are wrong or better yet showing you are right.
Aionios means forever, without end, but you don't like or trust our resources.

And we're not debating the the words "should" or "would", we're debating the word "eternal".

You are going to believe this man made doctrine no matter what scriptural proof you are shown.
 

npetreley

New Member
25 Jesus said to her, “I am the resurrection and the life. He who believes in Me, though he may die, he shall live. 26 And whoever lives and believes in Me shall never die. Do you believe this?

Okay, now let's apply kingdom eternal life to this passage.

25 Jesus said to her, “I am the resurrection and the life. He who believes in Me, though he may die, he shall live. 26 And whoever lives and believes in Me shall not die for 1,000 years. Do you believe this?

There you go. The new concept of eternal life applied.
 

J. Jump

New Member
Aionios means forever, without end, but you don't like or trust our resources.
Again why is Strong's the infallible authority on definitions? Why is it that Strong's is impossible of being wrong? And how is it that you can explain away an etemological dictionary and shows the word didn't mean that when the word is chosen?

Just curious?

And we're not debating the the words "should" or "would", we're debating the word "eternal".
Actually net was, and I asked you a question regarding the words, but you have yet to answer it. Let's ask it again.

Do you believe eternal salvation is a certainty or a possibility? If certainty then how do you explain away the "subjunctive" verbs is John 3:16 which DO NOT mean certainty, but possibility?

You are going to believe this man made doctrine no matter what scriptural proof you are shown.
Actually I'm going to believe Scripture over you or Strong's until you can show me otherwise. And you haven't even come remotely close yet.

By the way what are you doing with those warning passages to believers? Are they not to believers or can a believer lose his salvation?
 

J. Jump

New Member
25 Jesus said to her, “I am the resurrection and the life. He who believes in Me, though he may die, he shall live. 26 And whoever lives and believes in Me shall never die. Do you believe this?
Absolutely. Let me ask you a question. Is eternal salvation something that you possess now? Or do you have to wait for it?
 

J. Jump

New Member
Netreply I found this quote of yours rather curious in light of this discussion:

This is precisely what I'm talking about when I say Modern English (or better still, Early Modern English) does not always mean the same thing that today's English means. "Terrible" had different connotations for people back then than the word has for us. So the KJV is accurate enough on its own terms, it just isn't accurate in today's English.

So obviously you realize there are words that have changed meanings from then to this point in history. So why is it that "eternal" has remained a constant over these hundreds of years despite what etemological dictionaires say to the contrary?
 

npetreley

New Member
J. Jump said:
Again why is Strong's the infallible authority on definitions? Why is it that Strong's is impossible of being wrong? And how is it that you can explain away an etemological dictionary and shows the word didn't mean that when the word is chosen?
One does not use the etymology of a word in order to understand it. That's a logical fallacy. The etymology of the word "energy" is from a Greek word meaning "work". One does not then drop the word "work" into places where we use the word "energy". While energy does involve work from a physics perspective, one would not call an "energy crisis" that arises from a lack of gasoline a "work crisis".

Strongs is more accurate because it defines how the word was used, not the history of the word.

J. Jump said:
Do you believe eternal salvation is a certainty or a possibility? If certainty then how do you explain away the "subjunctive" verbs is John 3:16 which DO NOT mean certainty, but possibility?
I don't get your whole subjunctive argument. I suspect this points to one of your biggest problems. Someone somewhere said, "This word is in the subjunctive" and you thought that was some sort of key to unravelling a mystery, snatched up that argument, and are pepetuating it here. The fact that it's subjunctive is perfectly logical in the obvious context of the verse. It doesn't lend any credibility to your argument at all.

IMO, this is the "wow, I'm really brainy" payoff to these bizarre doctrines. You get to use cool words like "subjunctive" and reference "etymology" and Greek, and that makes you think you've got a unique perspective on the verse. You can impress other pseudo-intellectuals, but you won't get far with the rest of us.

Oh, and if you really want to sound impressive, spell etymology correctly.

.
 

npetreley

New Member
J. Jump said:
Netreply I found this quote of yours rather curious in light of this discussion:

So obviously you realize there are words that have changed meanings from then to this point in history. So why is it that "eternal" has remained a constant over these hundreds of years despite what etemological dictionaires say to the contrary?
Wow, you missed the point by about a gazillion light years. The word in TODAY'S TRANSLATIONS is "eternal". Look up eternal in TODAY'S DICTIONARY.

Main Entry: 1eter·nal
Pronunciation: i-'t&r-n&l
Function: adjective
Etymology: Middle English, from Middle French, from Late Latin aeternalis, from Latin aeternus eternal, from aevum age, eternity -- more at AYE
1 a : having infinite duration :

If the meaning has changed and it SHOULD mean something else (like 1,000 years) then the English translators made a mistake by using the word "eternal". It is MORE than reasonable to assume the translators knew what they were doing when they translated it as "eternal" in order to convey the MEANING OF THE WORD WHEN IT WAS USED IN NT TIMES.

Just as English translators would border on being mistaken to use the word "terrible" today, because it no longer means what the ORIGINAL LANGUAGE meant. I say "border on" because "terrible" is at least CLOSER to meaning "awesome" even today than "eternal" is to meaning "1,000 years". "eternal" never meant 1,000 years. Never. Ever. The etymology shows it could, at one time, mean an "age", but never did it ever mean 1,000 years. Never. Did you get that yet? Never.

So you have to break the word twisting it to mean what you want it to mean. You have to bypass the obvious translation as "eternal", go to the etymology, and then add a liberal dose of speculation, after which you manage to mangle the word into meaning 1,000 years. Remember what I said about self-deception? Bingo.
 

2 Timothy2:1-4

New Member
This is how heresies get started.

1. Everyone else is wrong throughout history,

2. Accepted historical works such as strongs taken directly from the original language in the context of the passsage is incorrect.

3. The meaning in the appropriate context differs from our presupposition so we need to go back to the root word (when it is convenient) because we can twist that using intellectual gymnastics to justify a new kind of salvation.

4. And of course my favorite: "Most of christiandom is wrong".
 

npetreley

New Member
2 Timothy2:1-4 said:
3. The meaning in the appropriate context differs from our presupposition so we need to go back to the root word (when it is convenient) because we can twist that using intellectual gymnastics to justify a new kind of salvation.

The intellectual gymnastics here require a double-jointed brain. ;)
 

Amy.G

New Member
2 Timothy2:1-4 said:
This is how heresies get started.

1. Everyone else is wrong throughout history,

2. Accepted historical works such as strongs taken directly from the original language in the context of the passsage is incorrect.

3. The meaning in the appropriate context differs from our presupposition so we need to go back to the root word (when it is convenient) because we can twist that using intellectual gymnastics to justify a new kind of salvation.

4. And of course my favorite: "Most of christiandom is wrong".
You have hit the nail on the head.

All of these tactics have been used throughout this discussion. And not just the last few pages, but for several months.
 

J. Jump

New Member
Boy you've got a work around for everything don't you netreply. Some words mean different things now, but certain words don't. Awfully convenient when you are the one that gets to choose which ones changed and which ones stayed the same.

There has been a lot of evidence given that showed people didn't use the word aionios to mean forever and ever and ever and ever. I guess you and others will just continue to ignore that becuase Strong's can't possibly be wrong.

I don't get your whole subjunctive argument.
Subjunctive in the Greek means possibility not certainty. Eternal salvation is not a possibility but a certainty. John 3:16 speaks of possibilities not certainties. Just showing that contextually John 3:16 doesn't speak of eternal salvation, because the context is a subject that is a possibility not a reality.

The fact that it's subjunctive is perfectly logical in the obvious context of the verse.
Exactly. That's my whole point.

It doesn't lend any credibility to your argument at all.
Not only does it, but it destroys your argument in the same breath. You are saying John 3:16 speaks of a certainty, when the actual langauge is speaking of a possibility.

You are talking about apples and the context of the verse is talking about oranges. This is done quite often by Christendom today, because of the traditions of man.

Oh, and if you really want to sound impressive, spell etymology correctly.
How about if you want to prove someone incorrect you do it with Scripture and not childish personal attacks! But you keep them personal attacks coming, because all it does is show your true colors!

IMO, this is the "wow, I'm really brainy" payoff to these bizarre doctrines.
And you are entitled to your opinion, but your opinion does not Truth make!
 

J. Jump

New Member
1. Everyone else is wrong throughout history,
And here we go with the same ole lame arguments. No one is saying that everyone else in history is wrong. Jesus Christ, the apostles, the 70 and the early church taught this message.

People used your same logic during the time Jesus walked the earth, because He was preaching a "new" doctrine and look where it go them.

Again you would think you folks could come up with something new and something that actually made sense.

2. Accepted historical works such as strongs taken directly from the original language in the context of the passsage is incorrect.
Maybe you can try your hand at this question, since everyone else seems to not want to pony up an answer. What makes Strong's infallible and the other resources that we have cited incorrect? Do you have Scripture that says Strong's is the ONLY thing a person can believe?

3. The meaning in the appropriate context differs from our presupposition so we need to go back to the root word (when it is convenient) because we can twist that using intellectual gymnastics to justify a new kind of salvation.
Please show me a langauge expert of any kind that says an adjective can mean something other than the word it modifies. Talk about illogical. WOW.

4. And of course my favorite: "Most of christiandom is wrong".
Truth is truth no matter whether you want to believe it or not. Again your majority is right logic didn't work very well when Jesus walked the earth. Just curious as to why it is the correct mode of thought these days?
 

npetreley

New Member
J. Jump said:
Subjunctive in the Greek means possibility not certainty. Eternal salvation is not a possibility but a certainty. John 3:16 speaks of possibilities not certainties.

John 3:16 speaks of possibilities because eternal life is conditional on whether or not you believe. It has nothing to do with the length of eternal life, or whether or not you earn it through works. If you're really concerned about the rewards for your works, you better worry about how you're going to pay for adding so much garbage to the text.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Top