Scripture More Accurately
Well-Known Member
Wrong. Your merely pronouncing something as the "normal" reading does not make it so.You are making an assumption.
The normal reading of the passage does not indicate a desire of Satan but rather a temptation of Christ. This is further demonstrated in the Garden as Christ prayed that the cup pass.
"Satan" means adversary. There is satan in a general sense and then there is Satan as the Devil (the Adversary of man).
This is what Scripture says about the influence of the Devil as directly related to Christ's death:
John 8:37–46 “I know that you are Abraham’s descendants; yet you seek to kill Me, because My word has no place in you. I speak the things which I have seen with My Father; therefore you also do the things which you heard from your father.” They answered and said to Him, “Abraham is our father.” Jesus *said to them, “If you are Abraham’s children, do the deeds of Abraham. But as it is, you are seeking to kill Me, a man who has told you the truth, which I heard from God; this Abraham did not do. You are doing the deeds of your father.” They said to Him, “We were not born of fornication; we have one Father: God.” Jesus said to them, “If God were your Father, you would love Me, for I proceeded forth and have come from God, for I have not even come on My own initiative, but He sent Me. Why do you not understand what I am saying? It is because you cannot hear My word. You are of your father the devil, and you want to do the desires of your father. He was a murderer from the beginning, and does not stand in the truth because there is no truth in him. Whenever he speaks a lie, he speaks from his own nature, for he is a liar and the father of lies. “But because I speak the truth, you do not believe Me. Which one of you convicts Me of sin? If I speak truth, why do you not believe Me? "
You are making an error, one often made, by considering the Devil as God's equal.
But the Devil has come down to you with great fury, because he knows his time is short. Satan means adversary. The Devil knows God will prevail, that God's Word will stand. He has great anger because he knows his time is short.
Furthermore, the Greek word rendered as "Satan" in this passage always refers to Satan in every other occurrence in the Greek NT. You have to prove that the word does not have the same referent here.
I am not making any such error of "considering the Devil as God's equal." This is an absurd and baseless claim about what I believe and understand the Bible to teach. I know very well that Satan is merely a created being and is as nothing in comparison to God.