The only thing that has been "abundantly supplied" is the claim that it has been abundantly supplied.Originally posted by michelle:
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Now, please provide scriptural support for KJVOism. This is my 54th request.
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As I have said, it has been abundantly supplied to you - you have ignored it.
Any scriptural support for KJV-onlyism ("abundantly supplied" or not) that can be put forward would have been untrue scripture before the KJV existed. Is Michelle arguing for scripture being untrue prior to the KJV's existence? It appears so. If not, then Michelle, you need to explicitly provide the scripture and explicitly explain how it supports KJV-onlyism, and also explicitly explain how it was also true (without changing meaning) prior to the KJV's existence. Otherwise, stop wasting everyone's time with your empty responses.