Post #10 seems to accept the things means all the things without ever addressing the issue of 1 Corinthians 3:1, with Paul speaking in the same way he spoke to men of flesh, using spiritual milk. No answer as to why Paul used spiritual milk. And no answer as how soils 2, 3 and 4 were able to understand the spiritual milk of the gospel. I will address "foolishness" in my next post.
Greetings again Van. I have been away for a little bit. Thought I would read what you wrote before church. Praise be to God.
Since my post was post #10, I'm assuming that all of the quoted paragraph above is regarding what I wrote. To be clear, what I have done in my post #10 is basically agree with you about your point #2, I think I'm agreeing anyway, that your stated #2 is false (I agree, it is false). Since I was basically agreeing with you, I didn't feel the need to address all your references. Those being, 1Cor 3:1 and the verse in Matthew regarding the soils.
In 1Cor 3:1, it seems reasonable, and correct, to interpret it as saying that Paul had to use spiritual milk, the kind used when speaking to the carnal, when first speaking to the those from the Corinthian church. Therefore, it follows that spiritual milk, i.e., the workings of the Spirit (because man is only the vessel of the message), is given to the carnal (as Paul suggests).
This reasoning in turn makes your #2 false (meaning you suggest your #2 is false and I agree).
Regarding Matt 13:18-23. Cleary it cannot be denied that the parable suggests that the carnal, to use verbiage from 1Cor 3:1, receive some spiritual milk in the form of using the word "seed". All receive this seed within the parable. Thus, all, as in all that literally hear, receive some kind of spiritual milk (aka a seed of truth). So again, this makes the phrase
"the lost cannot understand any of the things of the Spirit of God"...false. At least how the High Calvinist wants to used it. This is where my analysis in post #10 comes into play in using the word "appraise".
Matt 13:18-23 does suggest, however, that God is the
initiating acting agent in this scenario. God first sends this seed of truth, through His vessels and word, so that then man can be responsible for his part (because he was/is blind).
I didn't address your #1 because I'm not really interested in debating whether it's particular or corporate election. It seems to me that Particular election along with Surpralapsarianism demands that your #2 is correct (where you and I say it is false). Since I deny Supralapsarianism and assert a Postlapsarianism, it doesn't seem to logically follow that Postlapsarianism demands your #2 to be true (but again, Supralapsarianism does demand it).
In summery, I agree with your analysis of #2. And therefore, I disagree with the Calvinist. Regarding your #1, I disagree with the Calvinist that are Supralapsarians. This Supralapsarianism ultimately leads to them claiming your #2 (which we agree that your #2 is false).
Thank you for the conversation.
Peace to you brother