DHK said:
Yes, probably for comparison sake. That doesn't change the fact that the NT was written in Koine Greek (common Greek).
We both agree that the NT was written in Koine Greek.
It is in harmony with "Biblical or NT Greek" which is Koine Greek, as you have demonstrated in this post.
No, his definition is in harmony with classical lexicons such as Liddell's and Scott's - which you said yourself, use classical greek.
You are confused. Thayer doesn't attest to such.
Again, see page 675 of Joseph Henry Thayer's
Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament published by Zondervan Publishing House, Grand Rapids, 1962. You'll then see that he does "attest to such" by omitting all earlier definitions when it comes to the New Testament.
I haven't taken the time to look at what you are saying, but I don't believe Thayer contradicts himself. You are contradicting Thayer even in this post.
Again, you have not thoroughly understood what I have said (or your just denying the obvious).
Thayer cites authorities in confirmation of the meanings (the meanings with instruments), it is very significant that he, with the other lexicographers (like Liddell and Scott), has to go back to the same periods of the language
prior to New Testament times to get the definitions that have instruments in them.
But again, both Strongs (Blue Letter Bible) [
link] and Thayer all say - and I quote:
"
in the New Testament to sing a hymn, to celebrate the praises of God in song"
All the meanings before (about instruments) were taken from sources BEFORE the New Testament and then they both (Strongs and Thayer) omit the before meanings specifically pointing out that in the New Testament is simply meant to "sing a hymn, to celebrate the praise of God in song"
You said Sophocles was "Perhaps studying classical Greek instead of Koine Greek" and also you said he was "examining Classical or Koine Greek? Probably Classical, and thus the failure in his work." - but I've shown you that he was obviously studying Koine greek (not classical) so when he studied the writings of near 600 authors and declared that there is not a single example of
psallo (ψαλλω) throughout this long period (B.C. 146 to A.D. 1100) involving or implying the use of an instrument, but he says that it meant always and everywhere "to chant, sing religious hymns."
Look a little below Strong's defintion and you will find Thayer's definition, complete as it is.
Ah, thanks for pointing that out! [
link]
If you go down to Thayer's definition and click on "
Click Here for the Rest of the Entry" you will see Thayer's complete definition and again - see that he supports my argument.
You will see near the bottom of Thayer's definition that he says
"in the N.T. to sing a hymn, to celebrate the praises of God in song"
Like I've told you many times - when coming to the definition of the word
psallo in the New Testament they omit all previous meanings concerning instruments and simply say it means to sing.
As in any dictionary, primary meanings are always listed first, and the secondary or lesser meanings listed last. Take your clue from there.
Primary meanings are listed first - because the meaning of the word
psallo once did mean using instruments but like Thayer and Strong both write - in the New Testament that was no longer the case.
DHK said:
(Eph 5:19) Then you will recite to one another psalms, hymns, and spiritual songs. You will sing and make music to the Lord with your hearts. (ISV)
In interesting how you don't mind to bold the part of the verse that supports your argument (make music) but you won't recognize that it then tells us what to make music with - your heart (no musical instrument required).
