Define “ungodly dancing.” David danced in such a way that his wife rebuked him for it, basically told him it was unfit for a king to be dancing in such a way. He then told her it was for God, and that she basically needed to shut up.Why are certain types of music associated with ungodly dancing while other types of music are impossible to associate with ungodly dancing?
If we use no other scripture, that principle alone might end this discussion….
“American” pop music? Most of those countries are playing British pop music. And have been expanding with their own versions of pop music for decades. I knew I should have brought home a couple of those CDS of the Afghanistan pop stars….Why do you think non-English speaking countries play American pop music? Wouldn't it be because the music creates a certain atmosphere without any words being understood?
Ephesians 4:29 – corrupt communicationDo you think God condemns tone of voice, such as one that treats others with disrespect? Do you think God’s teaching about communicating with grace and love includes non-verbal communication? Do you think God’s teaching on communication clearly condemns a tone of defiance out of children?
Proverbs 15:1 – a soft answer versus harsh words
But Psalm 144:11 shows us that soft answers and non-corrupt communications may not be acceptable, either.
I’m disregarding the rest of this line of questioning, because those who speak vanity do so gently and usually without corruption; but their motivation is entirely different.
Already answered.In response to the idea that things are sinful only because of intent, I ask: Are you saying it is impossible to sin if we mean well? That the standard of righteousness is intent or desire?
Wow, did I ever miss this one, and cannot for the life of me see the correlation with the topic of discusson.Do you think it was okay to lust after another woman under the OT Law? If not, on what OT verse do you condemn lust?
So we’re only talking about one particular genre of music? As this turns back to the first question, I reiterate my need for clarification. There were people in the 1400’s who absolutely did not like the turn from Middle Ages music to Renaissance, and complained about how it was eroding away at values. The same around 1600 with the change to Baroque music. And again around 1750 with the advent of Classical, and again in the early 1800’s with the rise of Romantic music.How would God have condemned a type of music in any meaningful way? The music under consideration here did not exist 2000-4000 years ago when the Bible was written, and there were not recording devices that would have recorded the kind of music God might have condemned them. So give us an idea of what God might have said that would convince you.
In other words, the argument against particular genres of music (or, to put it another way, constructions of sounds), is an historical one, that has been played out over and over for the last 2,000 years.
So let's try this in a different way: You originally said certain construction of sounds could be construed as ungodly (I think I encapsulated your premise; if not, please feel free to correct me). One could interpret your statement to mean that certain genres or styles of music could be considered ungodly. If true, let's pick one particular genre, and examine why it specifically should be identified as not glorifying to God.
If not true, then we need more clarification on your statement about construction of musical sounds, and what your participation in this discussion is trying to accomplish.