Let me repeat michelle, the word in the original Greek is the same, there is no “these two words” in the inspired text, it has not been "ALTERED".............and the "nonsense" is that even with showing the difference between these two words, you all still fight against it. That is just plain nonsense, in the extreme! Go ahead Hank, continue to compromise with error, and
outright lies being promoted as truth.
Slander me of what you will it won’t change that fact.
The KJV translators used "dynamic equivalence" by interpreting the nuance of the Greek word martureo as "record" rather than "witness" which indeed is legitimate (but actually weakens the explanation given by Jesus IMO). However to keep the same word "witness" in both passages as in the original MSS is also legitimate and even more so as a closer word-for-word translation.
Jesus never bore witness of Himself and even when the words of witness came out of His mouth they were not His as He explained to the Pharisees.
John 5:31-32
If I bear witness of myself, my witness is not true.
There is another that beareth witness of me; and I know that the witness which he witnesseth of me is true.
John 12:49 For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak.
This is basically what they didn't understand...
"I and my Father are one".
HankD