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NIV Calls Lucifer, "Jesus" (Article)

GeneMBridges

New Member
Originally posted by michelle:
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The Latin Vulgate (from whence came the KJV “Lucifer”: in the Isaiah passage) also reads “Lucifer” in 2Pet 1:19:

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I don't care what the Latin Vulgate says, and I don't need to know what it says. The Vulgate got it wrong in 2 Peter 1:19. The word of God says that it is Lucifer in Isaiah 14:12 and day star in 2 Peter 1:19. The Latin Vulgate is not my authority, the word of God is.

love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
Ok, so the Latin Vulgate got it wrong in 2 Peter 2:19 but it got it right in Isaiah 14:12. The KJV translating committee then used a faulty document in order to arrive at an inerrant document. That's completely illogical and a completely subjective statement on your part. Subjectivism is not of the Lord? Where is your fear of the Lord?
 

GeneMBridges

New Member
Originally posted by michelle:
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posted May 21, 2004 12:16 AM
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michelle said:

Okay, then, I will explain it very plainly and boldly for you then:

BECAUSE THIS IS WHAT GODS WORD SAYS AND REVEALS.

2 Peter 2:19
Revelation 2:28
Revelation 22:16

In other words, because you say so. Thank you.
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I didn't say so, the word of God says so. I am just answering your question with what God has said and revealed about it in his word.


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Metaphors used for the Lord are never used for the wicked or Satan. Metaphors for Satan and the wicked, are never used for the Lord.

Er, isn't this the very assertion you have yet to demonstrate to the rest of us? Circular reasoning at its finest.
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Er, no it isn't circular reasoning, it is stating a fact.

love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
No, it's not a fact, as Ezekiel 28: 12 - 15 proves. Scripture describes Satan as the model of perfection, full of wisdom, anointed, blameless in his ways, and perfect in beauty. All of these terms are names or descriptions that God uses for Himself/Jesus elsewhere in Scripture, yet this passage is clearly descriptive of Satan.

The passage in Isaiah, if we assume it is primarily about Satan, would fit such a description, for such was Satan at the time he fell from heaven and iniquity was found in him. Therefore, calling him "the morning star" in the context of falling from heaven makes perfect sense after all. He would be the wise, anointed, perfect, blameless, beautiful morning star that fell from heaven (which is exactly what the text says), not the Morning Star that lasts forever, the one that never sets in the heavens, the Lord Jesus Christ.
 

GeneMBridges

New Member
Originally posted by michelle:
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posted May 21, 2004 12:16 AM
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michelle said:

Okay, then, I will explain it very plainly and boldly for you then:

BECAUSE THIS IS WHAT GODS WORD SAYS AND REVEALS.

2 Peter 2:19
Revelation 2:28
Revelation 22:16

In other words, because you say so. Thank you.
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I didn't say so, the word of God says so. I am just answering your question with what God has said and revealed about it in his word.


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Metaphors used for the Lord are never used for the wicked or Satan. Metaphors for Satan and the wicked, are never used for the Lord.

Er, isn't this the very assertion you have yet to demonstrate to the rest of us? Circular reasoning at its finest.
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Er, no it isn't circular reasoning, it is stating a fact.

love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
Yes, it is circular reasoning, and circular reasoning is automatically invalid.

Begging the Question - Assuming the thing to be true that you are trying to prove. It is circular.
Example: God exists because the Bible says so. The Bible is inspired. Therefore, we know that God exists.

You are simply assuming the truth of what you are trying to prove and arguing the premise. That is, by definition circular logic. Circular logic is illogical. WHat is illogical is not of God. Where is your fear of God?
 

michelle

New Member
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MV users stubborn, at least we don't stand on quicksand and call it rock. At least we don't base our fellowship on a doctrine that is not even in the Bible ( and you can use any version of the KJB you want from 1611 to 1873 and you will not find version onlyism anywhere) This thinking came straight from the RCC and now Baptists are buying it!
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You call a label a doctrine? You call believing that God preserved his words, and every single one of them, even for us in English, a false doctrine? And you have the nerve to call the truth I stand on quicksand? At least my faith is grounded in God's word and promises regarding his word. My stand is on a solid foundation. What is your stand on? You have no solid foundation to stand on, for all your versions have omitted verses from God's words of truth, and have weakened doctrines of our faith and the deity of our Lord Jesus Christ, which God has commanded not to do and have caused confusion. Please show me where the doctrines of our faith and the deity of the Lord Jesus Christ are weakened in the other KJB bibles that I continually hear about? Please show me where these same things that the modern versions have done, were done in the KJV bibles that weren't spelling or printing errors. Better yet, why don't you pick any one of the Bibles accurately based upon the received text, minus printing and spelling errors, that show these same alterations done in the modern versions that affect our doctrines of faith to be weakened, and the deity of our Lord Jesus Christ weakened?

Mv's are stubborn to the plain and obvious truth regarding this issue.

Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
 

GeneMBridges

New Member
Originally posted by michelle:
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MV users stubborn, at least we don't stand on quicksand and call it rock. At least we don't base our fellowship on a doctrine that is not even in the Bible ( and you can use any version of the KJB you want from 1611 to 1873 and you will not find version onlyism anywhere) This thinking came straight from the RCC and now Baptists are buying it!
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You call a label a doctrine? You call believing that God preserved his words, and every single one of them, even for us in English, a false doctrine? And you have the nerve to call the truth I stand on quicksand? At least my faith is grounded in God's word and promises regarding his word. My stand is on a solid foundation. What is your stand on? You have no solid foundation to stand on, for all your versions have omitted verses from God's words of truth, and have weakened doctrines of our faith and the deity of our Lord Jesus Christ, which God has commanded not to do and have caused confusion. Please show me where the doctrines of our faith and the deity of the Lord Jesus Christ are weakened in the other KJB bibles that I continually hear about? Please show me where these same things that the modern versions have done, were done in the KJV bibles that weren't spelling or printing errors. Better yet, why don't you pick any one of the Bibles accurately based upon the received text, minus printing and spelling errors, that show these same alterations done in the modern versions that affect our doctrines of faith to be weakened, and the deity of our Lord Jesus Christ weakened?

Mv's are stubborn to the plain and obvious truth regarding this issue.

Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
You say the Bible is your authority. Then prove it. Upon what Scripture can you say that the KJV is inerrant?
 

michelle

New Member
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No, that's not completely true. In Ezekiel 28:12 - 15, Scripture describes Satan as the model of perfection, full of wisdom, anointed, blameless in his ways, and perfect in beauty. The passage in Isaiah, if we assume it is primarily about Satan, would fit such a description, for such was Satan at the time he fell from heaven and iniquity was found in him. Therefore, calling him "the morning star" in the context of falling from heaven makes perfect sense after all. He would be the wise, anointed, perfect, blameless, beautiful morning star that fell from heaven (which is exactly what the text says), not the Morning Star that lasts forever, the one that never sets in the heavens, the Lord Jesus Christ.
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Sounds good, and even though one might be quick to agree with you on your point, you must take into account that the verse states "How art thou fallen" implying he was already in the fallen state. Your explanation doesn't and cannot apply.
Not only that, but the word does not say "star" nor does it say "morning". It states bright one. You all continue to overlook this truth.

Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
 

michelle

New Member
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Come on guys, everyone knows that metaphors exist in the Bible. Why fight that fact?
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I never said there weren't metaphors, and neither have I read anyone else say such a thing.

love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
 

michelle

New Member
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Isn't satan described as a light bearer, so is Jesus
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Where is Jesus Christ referred to as the Light Bearer?


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
 

GeneMBridges

New Member
Originally posted by michelle:
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No, that's not completely true. In Ezekiel 28:12 - 15, Scripture describes Satan as the model of perfection, full of wisdom, anointed, blameless in his ways, and perfect in beauty. The passage in Isaiah, if we assume it is primarily about Satan, would fit such a description, for such was Satan at the time he fell from heaven and iniquity was found in him. Therefore, calling him "the morning star" in the context of falling from heaven makes perfect sense after all. He would be the wise, anointed, perfect, blameless, beautiful morning star that fell from heaven (which is exactly what the text says), not the Morning Star that lasts forever, the one that never sets in the heavens, the Lord Jesus Christ.
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Sounds good, and even though one might be quick to agree with you on your point, you must take into account that the verse states "How art thou fallen" implying he was already in the fallen state. Your explanation doesn't and cannot apply.
Not only that, but the word does not say "star" nor does it say "morning". It states bright one. You all continue to overlook this truth.

Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
No, we do not overlook that truth at all and neither did the KJV translating committee by virtue of the fact that they put a note in the margin to that effect.

Its simply a different rendering of the term that is descriptive rather than nominative, and since the term heylel's case is not truly known it is NOT invalid. Since God does in fact apply names used of Himself to other beings, contrary to what you keep repeating as a fact, that lends even more validity to its usage. If the primary meaning of the Isaiah passage is to name Satan and comment on his fall, then it makes no sense to refer to the king of Babylon. The reference to Satan is not the primary meaning of the passage, it is the SECONDARY meaning of the passage. The term was lifted from the Vulgate, that thing you say you don't care what it contains. Well, you'd better care, because it is the source for some material found in the KJV. If you say that an inerrant document resulted from the use of an errant document that can't be, because the whole can never be greater than the sum of its parts, and if even one of its parts was taken from something errant, everything is tainted, that is one of the principles of the concept of inerrancy. THe KJV itself is not inerrant on that basis alone. The Bible is certainly without error in all that it affirms, but it is not primarily affirming the name of the devil in this verse, it is primarily affirming a word of judgment against the king of Bablyon. Does that mean that Lucifer being the name of the devil is ruled out? Certainly not, but it is simply not the primary point of the passage.

What I wrote above therefore makes the most sense of this secondary meaning. Even tho. Ezekiel does make these descriptions of Satan before his fall, we must remember that this verse in Isaiah is, if it is descriptive of Satan, describing him as a light bearer who has fallen. Jesus even made allusion to this verse and used the metaphor of Satan being like lightning. Lightning is bright; therefore Ezekiel's descriptions would still apply, but only, here, those things have become corrupted. The point is that Lucifer is the morning star that fell from heaven who was formerly perfect, blameless, etc., etc., in contrast with Jesus who is the true Morning Star, the one that never sets in the heavens, who will always be blameless and perfect and always has been, etc., etc. It is therefore, NOT confusing to use the same metaphor to refer to both except it seems to a limited few who refuse to even consider any other view other than their own.
 

michelle

New Member
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Ok, so the Latin Vulgate got it wrong in 2 Peter 2:19 but it got it right in Isaiah 14:12. The KJV translating committee then used a faulty document in order to arrive at an inerrant document. That's completely illogical and a completely subjective statement on your part. Subjectivism is not of the Lord? Where is your fear of the Lord?
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Nothing subjective about it, and I am sorry that you cannot understand simple things. Just because the translators thought the word Lucifer was a good word for the translation of the Hebrew word in Isaiah 14, and not for 2 Peter 1:19 speaks volumes about how they thought of it. Just because they used this one word from the vulgate does not make the whole vulgate accurate. This is faulty thinking. It is a word they chose to use, and whether they got it from the vulgate or not, I don't know, and neither do you, and it really doesn't matter. What matters is, did they choose a word that translated the Hebrew word accurately? - to which they did.

love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
 

michelle

New Member
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If you say that an inerrant document resulted from the use of an errant document that can't be, because the whole can never be greater than the sum of its parts, and if even one of its parts was taken from something errant, everything is tainted, that is one of the principles of the concept of inerrancy. THe KJV itself is not inerrant on that basis alone. The Bible is certainly without error in all that it affirms, but it is not primarily affirming the name of the devil in this verse, it is primarily affirming a word of judgment against the king of Bablyon. Does that mean that Lucifer being the name of the devil is ruled out? Certainly not, but it is simply not the primary point of the passage.
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Why don't you apply this same logic to the underlying text of the modern versions, because this is where this point you make should be focused upon, not to the underlying text of the KJB.

love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
 

GeneMBridges

New Member
Originally posted by michelle:
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Ok, so the Latin Vulgate got it wrong in 2 Peter 2:19 but it got it right in Isaiah 14:12. The KJV translating committee then used a faulty document in order to arrive at an inerrant document. That's completely illogical and a completely subjective statement on your part. Subjectivism is not of the Lord? Where is your fear of the Lord?
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Nothing subjective about it, and I am sorry that you cannot understand simple things. Just because the translators thought the word Lucifer was a good word for the translation of the Hebrew word in Isaiah 14, and not for 2 Peter 1:19 speaks volumes about how they thought of it. Just because they used this one word from the vulgate does not make the whole vulgate accurate. This is faulty thinking. It is a word they chose to use, and whether they got it from the vulgate or not, I don't know, and neither do you, and it really doesn't matter. What matters is, did they choose a word that translated the Hebrew word accurately? - to which they did.

love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
No, michelle, the whole cannot ever be greater than its parts. You can not say that the KJV is inerrant in itself if it draws material from an errant document. That's the point.

Second, it is only "correct" insofar as "heylel" means "shining one" or "bright one." It is derivative of "halel" which means "to shine."

What shines? The bright one, the shining one. What would that refer to? The morning star, venus, also known as Lucifer. Therefore morning star = Lucifer. Same thing, interchangeable terms. One is simply descriptive. If you and I stood on the earth at the time of Isaiah's writing and somebody pointed to the morning star and asked the name of that star, we would all agree "Lucifer." Therefore the morning star is Lucifer. There is nothing, zero, zip, nada, wrong with rendering the word "heylel" as "morning star" for that reason. What is the problem that you don't understand this other than, "The KJV says so?"

That IS circular logic to say that and circular logic is not valid reasoning. As I pointed out before God is not illogical or circular. Illogic = subjectivism. Subjectivism is not of God. Circular logic = illogic. Illogicalness is not of God. It is of self. God is a God of logic, because He created logic as a necessary concomitant of His existence. We know God exists because it is the only perfectly logical way the universe can exist and continue to exist. Therefore, we know that what is logical is of God. The flaw with logic does not lie with God it lies in the methods of its users. Therefore, we know that when logic used is circular, the problem isn't logic, it is the user of such logic and that user is flawed. Faith is always logical, it is never illogical or subjective, because it rests on objective truth. That is the very foundation of orthodox evangelical theology. To say otherwise is actually a theologically liberal point of view, and I know none of us here are theological liberals.
 

GeneMBridges

New Member
Originally posted by michelle:
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If you say that an inerrant document resulted from the use of an errant document that can't be, because the whole can never be greater than the sum of its parts, and if even one of its parts was taken from something errant, everything is tainted, that is one of the principles of the concept of inerrancy. THe KJV itself is not inerrant on that basis alone. The Bible is certainly without error in all that it affirms, but it is not primarily affirming the name of the devil in this verse, it is primarily affirming a word of judgment against the king of Bablyon. Does that mean that Lucifer being the name of the devil is ruled out? Certainly not, but it is simply not the primary point of the passage.
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Why don't you apply this same logic to the underlying text of the modern versions, because this is where this point you make should be focused upon, not to the underlying text of the KJB.

love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
I do apply the same logic to both. No translation of the Bible is without error, INCLUDING THE KJV. THE KJV IS NOT INSPIRED. There is no tradition except KJVonlyism that says so, and there certainly is no Scripture that says so. If I didn't apply that same logic to all translations of the Bible, I would be guilty of using a double standard. That is what KJVonlists do. They apply a different logic to the KJV and its underlying texts and other versions and their texts. Moreover, they say it is perfectly okay to borrow from the Vulgate, which they admit is errant, in order to arrive at an inerrant document, but that can't be based on the logical position that what the whole can not be greater than its parts. That's the problem with using a double standard..you end up embracing a premise or practice you say you deny in order to make the argument valid. That makes the argument self-defeating at some level, and nothing that is without error can have used a self-defeating premise or practice.

This is what I believe about inerrancy:
The authority of Scripture is a key issue for the Christian Church in this and every age. Those who profess faith in Jesus Christ as Lord and Savior are called to show the reality of their discipleship by humbly and faithfully obeying God's written Word. To stray from Scripture in faith or conduct is disloyalty to our Master. Recognition of the total truth and trustworthiness of Holy Scripture is essential to a full grasp and adequate confession of its authority.
The following Statement affirms this inerrancy of Scripture afresh, making clear our understanding of it and warning against its denial. We are persuaded that to deny it is to set aside the witness of Jesus Christ and of the Holy Spirit and to refuse that submission to the claims of God's own Word that marks true Christian faith. We see it as our timely duty to make this affirmation in the face of current lapses from the truth of inerrancy among our fellow Christians and misunderstanding of this doctrine in the world at large.
This Statement consists of three parts: a Summary Statement, Articles of Affirmation and Denial, and an accompanying Exposition. It has been prepared in the course of a three-day consultation in Chicago. Those who have signed the Summary Statement and the Articles wish to affirm their own conviction as to the inerrancy of Scripture and to encourage and challenge one another and all Christians to growing appreciation and understanding of this doctrine. We acknowledge the limitations of a document prepared in a brief, intensive conference and do not propose that this Statement be given creedal weight. Yet we rejoice in the deepening of our own convictions through our discussions together, and we pray that the Statement we have signed may be used to the glory of our God toward a new reformation of the Church in its faith, life and mission.
We offer this Statement in a spirit, not of contention, but of humility and love, which we propose by God's grace to maintain in any future dialogue arising out of what we have said. We gladly acknowledge that many who deny the inerrancy of Scripture do not display the consequences of this denial in the rest of their belief and behavior, and we are conscious that we who confess this doctrine often deny it in life by failing to bring our thoughts and deeds, our traditions and habits, into true subjection to the divine Word.
We invite response to this Statement from any who see reason to amend its affirmations about Scripture by the light of Scripture itself, under whose infallible authority we stand as we speak. We claim no personal infallibility for the witness we bear, and for any help that enables us to strengthen this testimony to God's Word we shall be grateful.

I. SUMMARY STATEMENT

1. God, who is Himself Truth and speaks truth only, has inspired Holy Scripture in order thereby to reveal Himself to lost mankind through Jesus Christ as Creator and Lord, Redeemer and Judge. Holy Scripture is God's witness to Himself.
2. Holy Scripture, being God's own Word, written by men prepared and superintended by His Spirit, is of infallible divine authority in all matters upon which it touches: It is to be believed, as God's instruction, in all that it affirms; obeyed, as God's command, in all that it requires; embraced, as God's pledge, in all that it promises.
3. The Holy Spirit, Scripture's divine Author, both authenticates it to us by His inward witness and opens our minds to understand its meaning.
4. Being wholly and verbally God-given, Scripture is without error or fault in all its teaching, no less in what it states about God's acts in creation, about the events of world history, and about its own literary origins under God, than in its witness to God's saving grace in individual lives.
5. The authority of Scripture is inescapably impaired if this total divine inerrancy is in any way limited of disregarded, or made relative to a view of truth contrary to the Bible's own; and such lapses bring serious loss to both the individual and the Church.
II. ARTICLES OF AFFIRMATION AND DENIAL

Article I.

We affirm that the Holy Scriptures are to be received as the authoritative Word of God.
We deny that the Scriptures receive their authority from the Church, tradition, or any other human source.

Article II.

We affirm that the Scriptures are the supreme written norm by which God binds the conscience, and that the authority of the Church is subordinate to that of Scripture.
We deny that church creeds, councils, or declarations have authority greater than or equal to the authority of the Bible.

Article III.

We affirm that the written Word in its entirety is revelation given by God.
We deny that the Bible is merely a witness to revelation, or only becomes revelation in encounter, or depends on the responses of men for its validity.

Article IV.

We affirm that God who made mankind in His image has used language as a means of revelation.
We deny that human language is so limited by our creatureliness that it is rendered inadequate as a vehicle for divine revelation. We further deny that the corruption of human culture and language through sin has thwarted God's work of inspiration.

Article V.

We affirm that God's revelation in the Holy Scriptures was progressive.
We deny that later revelation, which may fulfill earlier revelation, ever corrects of contradicts it. We further deny that any normative revelation has been given since the completion of the New Testament writings.

Article VI.

We affirm that the whole of Scripture and all its parts, down to the very words of the original, were given by divine inspiration.
We deny that the inspiration of Scripture can rightly be affirmed of the whole without the parts, or of some parts but not the whole.

Article VII.

We affirm that inspiration was the work in which God by His Spirit, through human writers, gave us His Word. The origin of Scripture is divine. The mode of divine inspiration remains largely a mystery to us.
We deny that inspiration can be reduced to human insight, or to heightened states of consciousness of any kind.

Article VIII.

We affirm that God in His work of inspiration utilized the distinctive personalities and literary styles of the writers whom He had chosen and prepared.
We deny that God, in causing these writers to use the very words that He chose, overrode their personalities.

Article IX.

We affirm that inspiration, through not conferring omniscience, guaranteed true and trustworthy utterance on all matters of which the Biblical authors were moved to speak and write.
We deny that the finitude or falseness of these writers, by necessity or otherwise, introduced distortion or falsehood into God's Word.

Article X.

We affirm that inspiration, strictly speaking, applies only to the autographic text of Scripture, which in the providence of God can be ascertained from available manuscripts with great accuracy. We further affirm that copies and translations of Scripture are the Word of God to the extent that they faithfully represent the original.
We deny that any essential element of the Christian faith is affected by the absence of the autographs. We further deny that this absence renders the assertion of Biblical inerrancy invalid or irrelevant.

Article XI.

We affirm that Scripture, having been given by divine inspiration, is infallible, so that, far from misleading us, it is true and reliable in all the matters it addresses.
We deny that it is possible for the Bible to be at the same time infallible and errant in its assertions. Infallibility and inerrancy may be distinguished but not separated.

Article XII.

We affirm that Scripture in its entirety is inerrant, being free from all falsehood, fraud, or deceit.
We deny that Biblical infallibility and inerrancy are limited to spiritual, religious, or redemptive themes, exclusive of assertions in the fields of history and science. We further deny that scientific hypotheses about earth history may properly be used to overturn the teaching of Scripture on creation and the flood.

Article XIII.

We affirm the propriety of using inerrancy as a theological term with reference to the complete truthfulness of Scripture.
We deny that it is proper to evaluate Scripture according to standards of truth and error that are alien to its usage or purpose. We further deny that inerrancy is negated by Biblical phenomena such as a lack of modern technical precision, irregularities of grammar or spelling, observational descriptions of nature, the reporting of falsehoods, the use of hyperbole and round numbers, the topical arrangement of metrical, variant selections of material in parallel accounts, or the use of free citations.

Article XIV.

We affirm the unity and internal consistency of Scripture.
We deny that alleged errors and discrepancies that have not yet been resolved violate the truth claims of the Bible.

Article XV.

We affirm that the doctrine of inerrancy is grounded in the teaching of the Bible about inspiration.
We deny that Jesus' teaching about Scripture may be dismissed by appeals to accommodation or to any natural limitation of His humanity.

Article XVI.

We affirm that the doctrine of inerrancy has been integral to the Church's faith throughout its history.
We deny that inerrancy is a doctrine invented by scholastic Protestantism, or is a reactionary position postulated in response to negative higher criticism.

Article XVII.

We affirm that the Holy Spirit bears witness to the Scriptures, assuring believers of the truthfulness of God's written Word.
We deny that this witness of the Holy Spirit operates in isolation from or against Scripture.

Article XVIII.

We affirm that the text of Scripture is to be interpreted by grammatico-historical exegesis, taking account of its literary forms and devices, and that Scripture is to interpret Scripture.
We deny the legitimacy of any treatment of the text or quest for sources lying behind it that leads or relativizing, dehistoricizing, or discounting its teaching, or rejecting its claims of authorship.

Article XIX.

We affirm that a confession of the full authority, infallibility and inerrancy of Scripture is vital to a sound understanding of the whole of the Christian faith. We further affirm that such confession should lead to increasing conformity to the image of Christ.
We deny that such confession is necessary for salvation. However, we further deny that inerrancy can be rejected without grave consequences, both to the individual and to the Church.
III. EXPOSITION

Our understanding of the doctrine of inerrancy must be set in the context of the broader teachings of Scripture concerning itself. This exposition gives an account of the outline of doctrine from which our Summary Statement and Articles are drawn.
A. Creation, Revelation and Inspiration
The God, who formed all things by his creative utterances and governs all things by His Word of decree, made mankind in His own image for a life of communion with Himself, on the model of the eternal fellowship of loving communication within the Godhead. As God's image-bearer, man was to hear God's Word addressed to him and to respond in the joy of adoring obedience. Over and above God's self-disclosure in the created order and the sequence of events within it, human beings from Adam on have received verbal messages from Him, either directly, as stated in Scripture, or indirectly in the form of part or all of Scripture itself.
When Adam fell, the Creator did not abandon mankind to final judgement, but promised salvation and began to reveal Himself as Redeemer in a sequence of historical events centering on Abraham's family and culminating in the life, death, resurrection, present heavenly ministry and promised return of Jesus Christ. Within this frame God has from time to time spoken specific words of judgement and mercy, promise and command, to sinful human beings, so drawing them into a covenant relation of mutual commitment between Him and them in which He blesses them with gifts of grace and they bless Him in responsive adoration. Moses, whom God used as mediator to carry his words to His people at the time of the exodus, stands at the head of a long line of prophets in whose mouths and writings God put His words for delivery to Israel. God's purpose in this succession of messages was to maintain His covenant by causing His people to know His name--that is, His nature--and His will both of precept and purpose in the present and for the future. This line of prophetic spokesmen from God came to completion in Jesus Christ, God's incarnate Word, who was Himself a prophet--more that a prophet, but not less--and in the apostles and prophets of the first Christian generation. When God's final and climactic message, His word to the world concerning Jesus Christ, had been spoken and elucidated by those in the apostolic circle, the sequence of revealed messages ceased. Henceforth the Church was to live and know God by what He had already said, and said for all time.
At Sinai God wrote the terms of His covenant on tablets of stone as His enduring witness and for lasting accessibility, and throughout the period of prophetic and apostolic revelation He prompted men to write the messages given to and through them, along with celebratory records of His dealings with His people, plus moral reflections on covenant life and forms of praise and prayer for covenant mercy. The theological reality of inspiration in the producing of Biblical documents corresponds to that of spoken prophecies: Although the human writers' personalities were expressed in what they wrote, the words were divinely constituted. Thus what Scripture says, God says; its authority is His authority, for He is its ultimate Author, having given it through the minds and words of chosen and prepared men who in freedom and faithfulness "spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit" (I Pet 1:21). Holy Scripture must be acknowledged as the Word of God by virtue of its divine origin.

B. Authority: Christ and the Bible
Jesus Christ, the Son of God who is the Word made flesh, our Prophet, Priest and King, is the ultimate Mediator of God's communication to man, as He is of all God's gifts of grace. The revelation He gave was more that verbal; He revealed the Father by His presence and His deeds as well. Yet His words were crucially important ; for He was God, He spoke from the Father, and His words will judge all men at the last day.
As the prophesied Messiah, Jesus Christ is the central theme of Scripture. The Old Testament looked ahead to Him; the New Testament looks back to His first coming and on to His second. Canonical Scripture is the divinely inspired and therefore normative witness to Christ. No hermeneutic, therefore, of which the historical Christ is not the focal point is acceptable. Holy Scripture must be treated as what it essentially is--the witness of the Father to the incarnate Son.
It appears that the Old Testament canon had been fixed by the time of Jesus. The New Testament canon is likewise now closed, inasmuch as no new apostolic witness to the historical Christ can now be borne. No new revelation (as distinct from Spirit-given understanding of existing revelation) will be given until Christ comes again. The canon was created in principle by divine inspiration. The Church's part was to discern the canon that God had created, not to devise one of its own.
The word 'canon', signifying a rule of standard, is a pointer to authority, which means the right to rule and control. Authority in Christianity belongs to God in His revelation, which means, on the one hand, Jesus Christ, the living Word, and, on the other hand, Holy Scripture, the written Word. But the authority of Christ and that of Scripture are one. As our Prophet, Christ testified that Scripture cannot be broken. As our Priest and King, He devoted His earthly life to fulfilling the law and the prophets, even dying in obedience to the words of messianic prophecy. Thus as He saw Scripture attesting Him and His authority, so by His own submission to Scripture He attested its authority. As He bowed to His Father's instruction given in His Bible (our Old Testament), so He requires His disciples to do--not, however, in isolation but in conjunction with the apostolic witness to Himself that He undertook to inspire by his gift of the Holy Spirit. So Christians show themselves faithful servants of their Lord by bowing to the divine instruction given in the prophetic and apostolic writings that together make up our Bible.
By authenticating each other's authority, Christ and Scripture coalesce into a single fount of authority. The Biblically-interpreted Christ and the Christ-centered, Christ-proclaiming Bible are from this standpoint one. As from the fact of inspiration we infer that what Scripture says, God says, so from the revealed relation between Jesus Christ and Scripture we may equally declare that what Scripture says, Christ says.

C. Infallibility, Inerrancy, Interpretation
Holy Scripture, as the inspired Word of God witnessing authoritatively to Jesus Christ, may properly be called 'infallible' and 'inerrant'. These negative terms have a special value, for they explicitly safeguard crucial positive truths.
'Infallible' signifies the quality of neither misleading nor being misled and so safeguards in categorical terms the truth that Holy Scripture is a sure, safe and reliable rule and guide in all matters.
Similarly, 'inerrant' signifies the quality of being free from all falsehood or mistake and so safeguards the truth that Holy Scripture is entirely true and trustworthy in all its assertions.
We affirm that canonical Scripture should always be interpreted on the basis that it is infallible and inerrant. However, in determining what the God-taught writer is asserting in each passage, we must pay the most careful attention to its claims and character as a human production. In inspiration, God utilized the culture and conventions of his penman's milieu, a milieu that God controls in His sovereign providence; it is misinterpretation to imagine otherwise.
So history must be treated as history, poetry as poetry, hyperbole and metaphor as hyperbole and metaphor, generalization and approximation as what they are, and so forth. Differences between literary conventions in Bible times and in ours must also be observed: Since, for instance, nonchronological narration and imprecise citation were conventional and acceptable and violated no expectations in those days, we must not regard these things as faults when we find them in Bible writers. When total precision of a particular kind was not expected nor aimed at, it is no error not to have achieved it. Scripture is inerrant, not in the sense of being absolutely precise by modern standards, but in the sense of making good its claims and achieving that measure of focused truth at which its authors aimed.
The truthfulness of Scripture is not negated by the appearance in it of irregularities of grammar or spelling, phenomenal descriptions of nature, reports of false statements (for example, the lies of Satan), or seeming discrepancies between one passage and another. It is not right to set the so-called "phenomena" of Scripture against the teaching of Scripture about itself. Apparent inconsistencies should not be ignored. Solution of them, where this can be convincingly achieved, will encourage our faith, and where for the present no convincing solution is at hand we shall significantly honor God by trusting His assurance that His Word is true, despite these appearances, and by maintaining our confidence that one day they will be seen to have been illusions.
Inasmuch as all Scripture is the product of a single divine mind, interpretation must stay within the bounds of the analogy of Scripture and eschew hypotheses that would correct one Biblical passage by another, whether in the name of progressive revelation or of the imperfect enlightenment of the inspired writer's mind.
Although Holy Scripture is nowhere culture-bound in the sense that its teaching lacks universal validity, it is sometimes culturally conditioned by the customs and conventional views of a particular period, so that the application of its principles today calls for a different sort of action.

D. Skepticism and Criticism
Since the Renaissance, and more particularly since the Enlightenment, world views have been developed that involve skepticism about basic Christian tenets. Such are the agnosticism that denies that God is knowable, the rationalism that denies that He is incomprehensible, the idealism that denies that He is transcendent, and the existentialism that denies rationality in His relationships with us. When these un- and anti-Biblical principles seep into men's theologies at presuppositional level, as today they frequently do, faithful interpretation of Holy Scripture becomes impossible.

E. Transmission and Translation
Since God has nowhere promised an inerrant transmission of Scripture, it is necessary to affirm that only the autographic text of the original documents was inspired and to maintain the need of textual criticism as a means of detecting any slips that may have crept into the text in the course of its transmission. The verdict of this science, however, is that the Hebrew and Greek text appears to be amazingly well preserved, so that we are amply justified in affirming, with the Westminster Confession, a singular providence of God in this matter and in declaring that the authority of Scripture is in no way jeopardized by the fact that the copies we possess are not entirely error-free.
Similarly, no translation is or can be perfect, and all translations are an additional step away from the autograph. Yet the verdict of linguistic science is that English-speaking Christians, at least, are exceedingly well served in these days with a host of excellent translations and have no cause for hesitating to conclude that the true Word of God is within their reach. Indeed, in view of the frequent repetition in Scripture of the main matters with which it deals and also of the Holy Spirit's constant witness to and through the Word, no serious translation of Holy Scripture will so destroy its meaning as to render it unable to make its reader "wise for salvation through faith in Christ Jesus" (2 Tim. 3:15).

F. Inerrancy and Authority
In our affirmation of the authority of Scripture as involving its total truth, we are consciously standing with Christ and His apostles, indeed with the whole Bible and with the main stream of Church history from the first days until very recently. We are concerned at that casual, inadvertent and seemingly thoughtless way in which a belief of such far-reaching importance has been given up by so many in our day.
We are conscious too that great and grave confusion results from ceasing to maintain the total truth of the Bible whose authority one professes to acknowledge. The result of taking this step is that the Bible that God gave loses its authority, and what has authority instead is a Bible reduced in content according to the demands of one's critical reasoning and in principle reducible still further once one has started. This means that at bottom independent reason now has authority, as opposed to Scriptural teaching. If this is not seen and if for the time being basic evangelical doctrines are still held, persons denying the full truth of Scripture may claim an evangelical identity while methodologically they have moved away from the evangelical principle of knowledge to an unstable subjectivism, and will find it hard not to move further.
We affirm that what Scripture says, God says. May He be glorified.
Amen and Amen.

If you have a problem with that, then start a thread on it.
 

michelle

New Member
The only circular reasoning that I am witnessing is from those who refuse to see the meaning for the Hebrew word and the meaning for Lucifer. As explained to you, the Hebrew word means bright one. No way to get morning star out of that, but it is logical to get light bearer out of it. Just because man put the name Lucifer to represent the planet venus is just that. Man's label upon the planet using the Latin word which means Light bearer/bringer. No where does this word mean morning star. In fact, my Webster's dictionary, which is the common person's dictionary indicates that this word means Satan, and it is the only definition given. Lucifer is who Madame Blavatsky worshiped, who is Satan. Lucifer is Satan, and has been known as Satan for hundreds of years, not the morning star and not even venus. Even today, the common person would not equate the morning star as being the planet Venus, nor would they equate it to being Satan. If they looked up in their common dictionary, they would have a better understanding of who is being spoken of in this verse with Lucifer than they would reading the NIV. Morning Star is not an accurate rendering for that word in that passage. In fact you couldn't even verify that morning star in the dictionary refered to Satan, nor could you find the reference for Venus. And even if the person were to find that this was called by astronomers the planet venus, they would then be very confused as to who this passage is really speaking of. Satan has done a good job of omitting himself from this verse. He has already done a good job convincing many people he doesn't even exist. Now he seems to be doing a very good job of convincing God's people he doesn't belong in that verse.

Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
 

michelle

New Member
--------------------------------------------------
I do apply the same logic to both. No translation of the Bible is without error, INCLUDING THE KJV. THE KJV IS NOT INSPIRED. There is no tradition except KJVonlyism that says so, and there certainly is no Scripture that says so. If I didn't apply that same logic to all translations of the Bible, I would be guilty of using a double standard. That is what KJVonlists do. They apply a different logic to the KJV and its underlying texts and other versions and their texts. Moreover, they say it is perfectly okay to borrow from the Vulgate, which they admit is errant, in order to arrive at an inerrant document, but that can't be based on the logical position that what the whole can not be greater than its parts. That's the problem with using a double standard..you end up embracing a premise or practice you say you deny in order to make the argument valid. That makes the argument self-defeating at some level, and nothing that is without error can have used a self-defeating premise or practice.
--------------------------------------------------

Then you have a real problem on your hands. You have no final authority in your christian life/walk. You believe that no translation is the very words of God, and that God does not have the power, nor ability to provide it, you are in serious jeopardy of having no final authority in your life. By your logic, and your reasoning, you have made even the greek and Hebrew texts unauthoritative. Sad, but this is what you are claiming you believe. I would rather be perceived by men to have a double standard, than to give up and outright deny my Lord, His promises, faithfulness, ability and power concering His words of truth.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
 

GeneMBridges

New Member
Originally posted by michelle:
--------------------------------------------------
I do apply the same logic to both. No translation of the Bible is without error, INCLUDING THE KJV. THE KJV IS NOT INSPIRED. There is no tradition except KJVonlyism that says so, and there certainly is no Scripture that says so. If I didn't apply that same logic to all translations of the Bible, I would be guilty of using a double standard. That is what KJVonlists do. They apply a different logic to the KJV and its underlying texts and other versions and their texts. Moreover, they say it is perfectly okay to borrow from the Vulgate, which they admit is errant, in order to arrive at an inerrant document, but that can't be based on the logical position that what the whole can not be greater than its parts. That's the problem with using a double standard..you end up embracing a premise or practice you say you deny in order to make the argument valid. That makes the argument self-defeating at some level, and nothing that is without error can have used a self-defeating premise or practice.
--------------------------------------------------

Then you have a real problem on your hands. You have no final authority in your christian life/walk. You believe that no translation is the very words of God, and that God does not have the power, nor ability to provide it, you are in serious jeopardy of having no final authority in your life. By your logic, and your reasoning, you have made even the greek and Hebrew texts unauthoritative. Sad, but this is what you are claiming you believe. I would rather be perceived by men to have a double standard, than to give up and outright deny my Lord, His promises, faithfulness, ability and power concering His words of truth.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
No, Michelle, I am not in any such danger. Scripture is without error in all that it affirms. However, no translation is without error, because God did not inspire the translators themselves.

I affirm the Chicago Statement on Biblical Inerrancy. Read it. I posted it above. It in NO WAY says that the Hebrew and Greek texts are not authoritative.

Hence:

We affirm that inspiration, strictly speaking, applies only to the autographic text of Scripture, which in the providence of God can be ascertained from available manuscripts with great accuracy. We further affirm that copies and translations of Scripture are the Word of God to the extent that they faithfully represent the original.
We deny that any essential element of the Christian faith is affected by the absence of the autographs. We further deny that this absence renders the assertion of Biblical inerrancy invalid or irrelevant.


We affirm that Scripture, having been given by divine inspiration, is infallible, so that, far from misleading us, it is true and reliable in all the matters it addresses.

We deny that it is possible for the Bible to be at the same time infallible and errant in its assertions. Infallibility and inerrancy may be distinguished but not separated.

Since God has nowhere promised an inerrant transmission of Scripture, it is necessary to affirm that only the autographic text of the original documents was inspired and to maintain the need of textual criticism as a means of detecting any slips that may have crept into the text in the course of its transmission. The verdict of this science, however, is that the Hebrew and Greek text appears to be amazingly well preserved, so that we are amply justified in affirming, with the Westminster Confession, a singular providence of God in this matter and in declaring that the authority of Scripture is in no way jeopardized by the fact that the copies we possess are not entirely error-free.
Similarly, no translation is or can be perfect, and all translations are an additional step away from the autograph. Yet the verdict of linguistic science is that English-speaking Christians, at least, are exceedingly well served in these days with a host of excellent translations and have no cause for hesitating to conclude that the true Word of God is within their reach. Indeed, in view of the frequent repetition in Scripture of the main matters with which it deals and also of the Holy Spirit's constant witness to and through the Word, no serious translation of Holy Scripture will so destroy its meaning as to render it unable to make its reader "wise for salvation through faith in Christ Jesus" (2 Tim. 3:15).


You are not trusting in the Lord, michelle. You are trusting in yourself and your viewpoint. You are trusting a translating committee, not God. Your faith is in the KJB itself. You yourself say that you'd rather use a double standard. Double standards are illogical and what is illogical is not of GOd. You are very, very deep in logical fallacy, and that is not EVER of God, because God created logic and would never endorse logical fallacy as being reliable. You yourself have said that logic is irrelevant for you and faith is what you base your views upon. That is, IMO, a rejection of God, because faith in the Lord is always logical because it rests on logically verifiable premises. Faith is never illogical if it is truly in God, because God is not illogical, ever. Illogical thinking is a sure sign of subjectivism and experientialism not of faith as evangelicals take faith. Faith may be the evidence of things not seen, but logic is not a seen thing. It is of the mind and the heart. Faith is belief and always finds its rest in logical things. Logic can not prove love or inspiration, but it can prove the God of such things, and, because it can prove God's existence we know it exists as a concomitant of His existence. That is why using circular logic, double standards, and self-defeating premises is not of God, even if you claim they are of faith. Because those are all illogical things, they are not of faith in God since God is never illogical.
 

GeneMBridges

New Member
Originally posted by michelle:
The only circular reasoning that I am witnessing is from those who refuse to see the meaning for the Hebrew word and the meaning for Lucifer. As explained to you, the Hebrew word means bright one. No way to get morning star out of that, but it is logical to get light bearer out of it. Just because man put the name Lucifer to represent the planet venus is just that. Man's label upon the planet using the Latin word which means Light bearer/bringer. No where does this word mean morning star. In fact, my Webster's dictionary, which is the common person's dictionary indicates that this word means Satan, and it is the only definition given. Lucifer is who Madame Blavatsky worshiped, who is Satan. Lucifer is Satan, and has been known as Satan for hundreds of years, not the morning star and not even venus. Even today, the common person would not equate the morning star as being the planet Venus, nor would they equate it to being Satan. If they looked up in their common dictionary, they would have a better understanding of who is being spoken of in this verse with Lucifer than they would reading the NIV. Morning Star is not an accurate rendering for that word in that passage. In fact you couldn't even verify that morning star in the dictionary refered to Satan, nor could you find the reference for Venus. And even if the person were to find that this was called by astronomers the planet venus, they would then be very confused as to who this passage is really speaking of. Satan has done a good job of omitting himself from this verse. He has already done a good job convincing many people he doesn't even exist. Now he seems to be doing a very good job of convincing God's people he doesn't belong in that verse.

Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
I am using Webster's Dictionary too, michelle...

Here is what it says of the word Lucifer:

1. Planet Venus, where it is the morning star.
2. Satan, esp. as leader of the angels BEFORE his fall.

Therefore, you have a problem, because the text says that it is the name of Satan BEFORE his fall, not after his fall and the text clearly has him as already having fallen.

Remember, you're the one that pulled Webster's into this discussion. I'm only telling you what Webster's says.

NOBODY here is arguing that the text is not referring to Lucifer, the fallen angel, the fallen morning star. What they have said is that it is a secondary teaching of the verse borne from the literary device of parallelism which is a valid hermaneutic because it was the same hermaneutic of the Jews at Jesus time (that is how Matthew says Isa. 7:14 applies to Jesus as well as the child born in Isa. 8:3).
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Michelle:You obviously have no knowledge of the history of the Bible version debate.

Seems as if I do all right.. YOU haven't been able to disprove the first thing I and other anti-KJVOismists have said. Please prove to us that the modern KJVO myth didn't start with Ben Wilkinson's book.


It has been going on for alot longer than you think. Study to show thyself approved. Stop focusing on the label, and you might learn something and be blessed.

Please answer this simple question : YOU SAY YOU'RE NOT KJVO. WHAT OTHER BIBLE VERSION(S) DO YOU RECOMMEND?

And what about the marginal note in the AV 1611 for isaiah 14:12-"or O day starre"? before you tell us that's not in the AV's text, notice that the translators said, "or", not "possibly". This shows they believed they could've written "day starre" in the text & been equally correct.
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Michelle:If anyone is guilty of speaking a lie on this, it is you, and those that say the same as you. The Hebrew word Helel means bright one. No mention of the word star anyhwere to be gained. Lucifer means Light bearer. No star involved in that word either. The NIV has not rendered the word accurately and has blasphemied our precious Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ.

More of the great KJVO DOUBLE STANDARD at work here. You insist on what you perceive as accuracy in THIS point, but you're quite willing to chuck accuracy to the wind in such things as "the image of" in the KJV's Romans 11:4 when NO known Greek ms supports this reading. You're quite willing to accept the KJV rendering of "God forbid" in many places for'me ginomai' which means neither God nor Forbid.

But you say you're NOT KJVO. What other version(s) do you recommend?
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Michelle:Like I have said before, footnotes are not God's words, but are the words and opinions of man. I leave those things out, when it conflicts with the truth.

Despite the fact that the AV translators said, "OR o day starre".

From the Merriam-Webster Dictionary:

or(conjunction)

used as a function word to indicate an alternative <coffee or tea> <sink or swim>

Archaic: either

Sorry it is not a yes or no answer to your request, but I will answer questions addressed to me, the way I feel best to answer them, not the way you request I answer them.

Even when proven wrong.

You say you're not KJVO. What other version(s) do you recommend?
 
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