'You have yet to offer any solid evidence that those terms require baptism. The thief on the cross was not baptized. Can you show me where Peter was even baptized.'
You can't show me that Peter wasn't baptized either. Nor can you know that the theif on the cross wasn't baptized. The above post with the reference to Mark 1:4-5 gives pretty good evidence that he probably was.
Helloooooooo there????????????????
Have you ever heard of the "Anabaptists" and why they were called "Anabaptists" and why the RCC persecuted them even unto death.
Ana means again. They baptized again. They did not believe the first baptism (infant), coming before salvation, was baptism at all. You can be baptize once or a hundred times. But it is not baptism if it occurs before salvation. The thief got saved, cried out to Christ on the cross. He then died. Where was the time for him to get baptized?? Please I want to know the answer to this miraculous dilemma that you pose when you said
"Nor can you know that the theif on the cross wasn't baptized."
You also said: "You can't show where Peter was baptized either."
Helllooooo Again!!!!
The onus is on you to prove that he was.
Can you prove that he wasn't typing on his laptop computer.
Can you prove that the thief wasn't eating an ice cream cone as he was dying?
Why are you trying to argue these things from silence. It can't be done.
It's interesting to note that there are even Baptist on this board that believe that baptism is necessary to salvation.
Not that I know of.
It's very difficult to read the bible and conclude much else.
Repent and be baptized.
Believe and be baptized. Over and over these statements are made. Baptism follows the other. It follows, but is not a part of the other. How can one conclude any thing else but (unless they have been brainwashed by some cultish organization).
Here is the Scriptures, go ahead and apply your usual Baptist spin:
Mark 16:16 - He who believes and is baptized will be saved.
Why not quote the whole verse to keep it in context.
Acts 2:38 - Repent and be baptized for the remission of sins.
Compare it to Mat.3:11 and study the usage of the Greek word eis "for" in this verse and "unto" in Mat.3:11. They both can be translated with the sense of "because of." We are baptized because our sins have been remitted. That is why John the Baptist baptized. "Unto Repentance." Do you really think that the baptism he baptized with brought repentance to those sinful Pharisees? Or did they have to repent first, and then be baptized. Think carefully about your answer.
Acts 22:16 - Be baptized and wash away your sins.
When was Paul saved. Was he saved on the road to Damascus when he met Jesus and called him Lord, and prayed to him, saying "Lord what will thou have me to do?" That is when I believe he was saved. The Greek also gives another construction that you need to study about Acts 22:16. But even here you have a theological problem if you are going to maintain that Paul was not saved until he was baptized. He had already submitted to Christ as his Lord. So a person submits to Christ as Lord, but is not saved. That is what you believe?
Rom. 6:3,4; Gal. 3:26,27 - We are baptized into Christ, into His death. We have newness of life after we have been baptized (John 3:3,5).
Romans 6:3,4 gives us a picture. It is a picture of our death to sin and our resurrection to a new life in Jesus Christ. It is symbolic of our baptism with Christ, and nothing more. Do more study. It says nothing of baptism being necessary for salvation. Where do you get that from?
There is not one word of "baptism in John 3:3,5; not a word. The context is the new birth. There is no talk of baptism. If you think it is speaking of baptism you are dead wrong. This is where the RCC teaching is wrong, and on this very important and necessary teaching of the Bible, they are deceiving people and sending them straight to Hell.
What did Jesus say?
Except a man be born again he cannot enter the kingdom of God.
To be born again is necessary to go to heaven.
But if a person thinks that it is baptism then that person is on their way to hell not heaven. How dangerous it is to play and twist the scriptures to a person's own eternal destruction.
I Pet. 3:21 - Baptism now saves us.
Again you give no context, and for good reason.
You leave out a number of important facts. I will give you two of them.
The verse starts out this way. "The like figure...." In other words it was an example, an illustration.
Secondly, immediately after the part of the verse you quoted it says:
1 Peter 3:21 The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us
(not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ:
--It is not the putting away of the filth of the flesh. Baptize your flesh all you want, but it cannot save you. Peter says that. It is not the flesh. Rather the answer of a good conscience toward God that comes by the resurrection of Jesus Christ. That comes only by faith in Jesus Christ, not by baptism. Baptism only represents what is done in the heart.
--Be sure to read the preceding verses that led to this verse. Noah was baptized too. He also was saved. How was he saved? What was he saved from? How do you think that applies to this verse?