I believe it was. But you are entitled to your opinion.
Right back at ya.
The Septuagint doesn't teach that;
I believe it does. But you are entitled to your opinion
your interpretation of it does.
It's not left up to interpretation. You just go with what it says. Most modern-day translators translate the first word "And," however the Septuagint translates the first word "But," detecting not a connection of the two vereses, but a disconnect of the two verses. That's not interpretation that's just what it says.
Besides that the Septuagint isn't inspired. It is a translation of the Hebrew Scriptures, and like all translations is prone to mistranslations and error.
DHK the same thing can be said of modern-day translators. So you want us to believe that folks in 1611 were smarter than the Hebrew scholars that translated the Septuagint? Of course it isn't inspired. But neither is modern-day translation so your argument here is moot.
What does the Hebrew actually say? That is what defines the question.
Now something that we can agree upon. And that is the part that leads to confusion. There are if I'm not mistaken three different ways the word can be translated in the Hebrew langauge and all them of them are accurate translation. However context and the rest of Scripture well tell us which one is correct in this particular case. And the only one that fits with the rest of the way Scripture is laid out is But and not And.
Another translational issue in 1:2 is "was" and "became." The same Hebrew word is translated "was" in 1:2, but is "became" in several other places in chapter 1.
So the language in and of itself is not going to answer the question because was and became are both correct. Again however the rest of Scripture tells us which one is correct. And that would be became.
Isaiah doesn't really say that, does he?
Okay you're right. It was the Holy Spirit through Isaiah that said it. That should be better
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The KJV has a weak translation of that particular verse that you haven't given a reference to. Give the reference and we will look at it in more detail.
Actually I don't see how that is the case. Here is the verse:
For thus says the LORD, who created the heavens (He is the God who formed the earth and made it, He established it and did not create it a waste place, but formed it to be inhabited), "I am the LORD, and there is none else.
God said He didn't create the earth in the form it was in in verse 2. Call me crazy, but I believe what He says.
That is akin to blasphemy. God never created anything that wasn't perfect.
THANK YOU! That's my whole point. God did not create the earth a waste place. He said He didn't and it's impossible for Him to do so. Therefore verse 2 can not be the starte of a more detailed account of creation. It's impossible. Another reason we know the language to be "But" and "became."
God is a perfect God, and when he looked on all his creation he saw that it was very good. There was never anything that God created that wasn't perfectly good, including the heavens and the earth.
Exactly. Again you prove my point. Notice that at the end of verse 2 God does not say that the earth in this condition is good. That's because it wasn't good. It wasn't in a state that God created it in.
Obviously, as I just mentioned, that is not the only possible answer. Verse one is a summary statement of what is to follow. Most paragraphs start off with a topic sentence, a statement that introduces the topic that is to follow. That is true in this case. The verse two follows with how God began to create the earth. There is no gap. That is just imaginary. It contradicts too much Scripture. There was no death before Adam. Scripture plainly states that, and yet you contradict it.
Again see the statement above. Verse 2 can not be the beginning of how God created the heavens and the earth because if it is so then His first step was not a perfect step and therefore an impossibility.
And nowhere have I said that death entered into the gap. I have not contradicted anything. I have never said that anything died in this gap. You are placing me into the "Gap Theory" folks. And yes there are some serious issues with some of their thinking. But just because someone tries to cram untruth into a Scriptural Truth, doesn't make that Scriptural Truth untrue.
That is the argument that most try to make against the actual teaching of a gap inbetween these two verses. I'm sorry some folks messed with Scripture, but Truth is still Truth.
God doesn't make a big deal about a gap.
You quoted me, but you didn't read what I wrote. I never said God made a big deal out of the gap. God made a bid deal out of the six days of work and the seventh day of rest.
If such an event happened it would be mentioned somewhere in Scripture, but it is not.
Says who? You? By what authority do you say that?
And BTW, God only speaks of one redemption, one race.
Well if you are talking about one redemption of that one race I would agree. There is only one race that will be redeemed.
There is no dying on the cross and provision or redemption for any other race;
And again you a putting one in my mouth that I never said. I never said there was redemption for another other race of people. You need to stick with what is actually said
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