Greektim
Well-Known Member
Disagreement is one thing. To pontificate ex cathedra that he is flat wrong is a whole other issue.Yes of course it must take a huge amount of Hubris to disagree with the infallable NT Wright.
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Disagreement is one thing. To pontificate ex cathedra that he is flat wrong is a whole other issue.Yes of course it must take a huge amount of Hubris to disagree with the infallable NT Wright.
My point is that it is silly to think that you are not doing the same thing when you read Scripture... you are just adding your own opinion to the plethora of opinions out there. Why is your own opinion more valid than a scholar who is trained and well studied in the field?
If one follows your logic consistently, then nothing but opinion exists as no one can confidently say the scripture says, teaches, demands, this or that, but only can say MY OPINION IS the scripture says this or that. However, that kind of logic and expression is totally missing from the inspired historical records, as neither Jesus, the apostles, prophets or even the common believer ever approached or expressed their faith in those terms - never! So your view is totally unbiblical in every regard.
The fact is, the scriptures can be "rightly divided" and those who do the work required to contextually interpret the scripture can say with complete confidence "thus saith the Lord" and then challenge all naysayers to simply prove contextually what they believe is not what the word of God says or teaches. However, your logic begins with the assumption that nothing but opinion exists and thus no one can confidently claim with the authority of scripture anything at all. Your line of logic is the source of the phrase "That is your interpretation" but my line of logic is "no, that is not my interpretation but that is what the scripture teaches and here is why I positively know it and until you can disprove it by valid contextual based reasons you have no right to claim it is my interpetation."
Every word in scripture is placed in a readable definable context
There is nothing about the metaphysical that you can Prove absolutely, no matter how articulate, how well read or how much time you have spent studying the scriptures. If that were the case, there would be no need for faith and belief.
The problem people have with NT Wright is not that he is unbiblical but that their view of “unbiblical” means “not the way I interpret Scripture” or “not what I have been taught.” This is evident even by skimming John Piper’s rebuttal of Wright’s theology. His main concern is that Wright presents an understanding that is complicated to our view point and is at odds with the view of the past 400 years. Wright’s contention is that it is complicated because we are not first century Jews and the argument that 400 years of acceptance equates to correctness is a rebuttal of the Reformation. Wright has a valid point, regardless of how one leans on the NPP.
In other words, who is to say that you are right and Wright is wrong (pun intended) except for your own interpretation?
In other words, who is to say that you are right and Wright is wrong (pun intended) except for your own interpretation?
I am. What he is saying is the accepted view of Romans by the church for more than 400 years is wrong. It is like he creates his own argument so he can knock it down.
If you are talking about Wrights view of justification, and specifically his view of "works" (if I remember his view correctly) then he is unbiblical in his definitions. For example the word "works" used in Romans 4:1-3 is pre-Israel, pre-Moses and therefore cannot be interpreted to mean "become Jewish" or justificaition by Mosaic Law.
If you are talking about Wrights view of justification, and specifically his view of "works" (if I remember his view correctly) then he is unbiblical in his definitions. For example the word "works" used in Romans 4:1-3 is pre-Israel, pre-Moses and therefore cannot be interpreted to mean "become Jewish" or justificaition by Mosaic Law.
I don’t know. While I am not sure I remember correctly, it does seem that Wright insists that “works” were related directly to the Law – but this seems appropriate in relation to Romans. It is odd, IMHO, for Paul to deal so much with what is obviously works of the Law and then shift to focusing on “works” in general (although this may indeed be the case).
Arminianism is simply a religious expression of Humanism that makes man the captain of his own destiny. If the child of God cannot "will" or "do" anything pleasing to God apart from God working it in him (Philip. 2:13) how in the world does the Arminian think the lost man can?????
How many times have you sworn on the BB not to buy another book because you have more than enough already --many which you have not read?My book came in.
Honestly I think you are confusing Weslyianism, and Neo-Orthodoxy with classical arminianism.
Enjoy!!! My offer still stands.GreekTim,
My book came in.
How many times have you sworn on the BB not to buy another book because you have more than enough already --many which you have not read?
The righteousness of God is what the Law of Moses reveals and demands but what NO FALLEN or REDEEMED HUMAN BEING can perfectly perform IN THEIR OWN BODY.
"Works" refer to what a person does THROUGH HIS OWN BODY. The Law of Moses is the most comprehensive revelation of the righteousness of God and what God WOULD DO IN HIS OWN BODY if he lived on earth.
No fallen son of Adam has or can do IN THEIR OWN BODY what Christ did IN HIS OWN BODY, but that is precisely what must be accomplished in order for anyone to be justified by God for entrance into heaven. Neither unredeemed or redeemed can do that IN THEIR OWN BODY as it requires a WHOLE LIFE lived from birth to death like Christ lived it. All men have sinned and thus it is impossible to be justified by "works" or THAT WHICH IS DONE IN YOUR OWN BODY.
Hence, the only possible way to obtain that righteousness necessary for justification is to have it freely imputed to you by faith in a substitutionary representative Savior.
Given your first paragraph, I am not sure that I understand your objection to Wright's use of "works" to refer to the Law. If the Law is the most comprehensive revelation of the righteousness of God, then why would the pauline view of "works" not be in context of the Law?
Second, I am also not sure that I understand what you mean by righteousness that is "freely imputed" to the believer by faith. If you mean that we are considered righteous because we are "in Christ," that we are clothed in His righteousness, then I agree (please correct me if I misunderstand your point).