I believe the earth is older than the young earth creationists claim, and younger than the old earth claims.
I also know the gap theory is impossible for several reasons. The first is the Hebrew grammar of Genesis 1.
Verse 1 and verse 2 are connected with a "vaw connective." It is translated "and." It would be entirely legitimate to translate the "vaw connective" as "and immediately, without the passage of time" the next part of the verse began to happen.
And note also that every other subsequent verse in Genesis 1 starts with the same "vaw connective" with the exception of verse 27. Is there a billions and billions of years gap between all those verses too?
The second is doctrine. According to the bible it was Adam's sin that brought death into the world. (Romans 5:12) The gospel of Jesus Christ is predicated on the fact that death has affected every living soul. If that is not true then the gospel is not true. The gap theory has death existing prior to Adam's fall and is thus not only un-scriptural, but anti-scriptural.
My question concerns, the death. Where did it come from? God?
Wherefore, as by one man
sin entered into the world, and
death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:
Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same;
that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil; Heb 2:14
Did Adam give that power to the devil? How long had the devil had that power? Why did God plant a garden and then put the man, he had created, in the garden in the presence of the serpent, the devil?
Does the darkness of verse 2 of Genesis, imply the presence of the devil, Satan of which God the light divided himself from in verse 4?
How long had the devil, Satan been exercising his works on the earth, before Adam was created.?
He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil. 1 John 3:8
Was the Son of God manifested in the figure of Adam?
Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them
that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come. Rom 5:12
Was the Son manifested in the figure of Adam to destroy something that existed before Adam was created?
I am old earth because of the scripture.
BTW if the, "vaw connective," had been, "was," instead of, "became," would that not contradict scripture where God stats that he does not create, "tohuw and bohuw,"?
Also I believe what took place from when God said, let there be light, to the end of the chapter were six twenty four hour days.