Thinkingstuff
Active Member
IF this were true then we would have better conversations about it rather than me listening to accusations.Please don't tell me what I "think" because that is simply not true. I perfectly understand the Catholic and Orthodox explanation of sacraments and their relationship to justifying grace and regeneration.
Again you take Romans 4 out of Context. Romans 4 is about faith not about repudiating sacramentalism. As any exegetical review will surely point out. You mistakenly provide an example which Paul gives in regard to forgiveness for sin as his main point when his main point was to show the primacy of faith over the works of the law. It is interesting to note that you always start Romans at chapter 4 rather than taking in the context from the begining as if Paul didn't connect his thinking with the rest of his book. And in fact. Your assertion thatHowever, their explanation is simply not Biblical.Regeneration does not occur IN baptism neither does justifying grace occur WITH baptism. Neither occur in connection with baptism (Rom. 4:11).
Is shown to be false in how you attempt to use Romans 4 to "repudiate" "sacramentalism".Please don't tell me what I "think" because that is simply not true.
Your basic argument relies on the fact that you think "sacramentalism" is magically based because circumcision in of itself is not effications towards salvation. Which is why you keep pointing out Romans 4. So yes based on your statements I can certainly suggest what you think in regards to what you believe Catholics think in regards to the sacraments. Look for instance as your "premier verse to support your viewNeither occur in connection with baptism (Rom. 4:11)
Where you hold that we believe the action of itself like circumcision for the Jewish Christians saves without faith. And by attempting to use this verse in this way you 1) make a false claim of "sacramental repudiation" as if that was Pauls thought regarding a developed Catholic Doctrine that wasn't yet defined in the Christian Church and 2) Ignoring the fact that the context of the passage Follows from an argument Paul makes in the preceeding chapterAnd he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had yet being uncircumcised: that he might be the father of all them that believe, though they be not circumcised; that righteousness might be imputed unto them also:
which once again the chapter 4 begins with the continuing argument followed from previous chapters21 But now the righteousness of God has been manifested apart from the law, although the Law and the Prophets bear witness to it— 22 the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe.
certainly referrencing what he spoke about from the second chapter of RomansFor if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God
It becomes obvious Paul is moving Jewish christians away from the idea that circumcision of its own saves rather than repudiating "sacramentalism" which is the outward sign of an inward Grace. Romans 4 contextually is speaking of the primacy of faith in our justification. Ie... Without faith you can't be justified.But if you call yourself a Jew and rely on the law and boast in God
For what does the Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness.” ... And to the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness,
Not in those terms as you believe Justification is forensic (which does not coincide with scripture btw). Which is why everything comes back to the forensic idea of salvation with your. Ie you must say it doesn't affect "salvation". Which you use in this sense forensicly, which you say you don't believe that about salvation because even you note that salvation incorporates more than just one aspect. When its clear scriptures give us a view of salvation which is more than a forensic understanding. However saying that I can certainly say you believe that a grace is given with those activity in which you participate "drawing you closer" to Jesus Christ transforming a christian more into his likeness. Note you also believe if you don't practice active scripture reading and having a prayer life that your "spiritual growth" is stunted. So in essence we hold God dispensing grace through specified activities just because you don't use the same terminology because it doesn't coincide with your Forensic view of "Salvation". Doesn't mean we don't hold the same consept. Thus your only retort for not having the similiar view with our interaction with God is "But that doesn't affect our salvation". Which of course you mean forensicly.No it is not! We do not believe that prayer or reading the Bible communicates justifying/regenerating grace.
So, said you are attempting to make me believe God only interacts with you symbolically and not in actuality? I don't believe any baptist holds this view. I guess when baptist want a healing from God they just want it to be done symbolically and not in actuality? I don't think you want to believe that.This is precisely what Paul repudiates in Romans 4:5-11. The outward sign has no ORGANIC connection with either regeneration or justification. It has not SPIRITUAL connection either. It has only a SYMBOLIC connection
Oh, so the thrust of your faith is that no one should make an attempt to live out the life of Christ because its impossible thus by implication. We should be comfortable in sin? But is this whatJesus when he says to usYes, but not a model for our salvation as no human being can possibly live out that model either by his own power or the power of the Holy Spirit working in and through him - impossible as that requires sinlessness.
or Paul when he says in Romans 6You therefore must be perfect, as your heavenly Father is perfect.
andWhat shall we say then? Are we to continue in sin that grace may abound? 2 By no means! How can we who died to sin still live in it? 3 Do you not know that all of us who have been baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into his death? 4 We were buried therefore with him by baptism into death, in order that, just as Christ was raised from the dead by the glory of the Father, we too might walk in newness of life.
Of course not. And we also see in this verse the contextual unity of Romans starting in the 1st chapter through the rest of his book which unfortunately you want to cut apart as if there isn't a unifying thread in his discourse? Who writes in a manner of no cohesion? Certainly not Paul.Let not sin therefore reign in your mortal body, to make you obey its passions. 13 Do not present your members to sin as instruments for unrighteousness, but present yourselves to God as those who have been brought from death to life, and your members to God as instruments for righteousness. 14 For sin will have no dominion over you, since you are not under law but under grace.
The fact that you seperate the life of Christ from his work on Calvary makes this statement understandable however its not scriptural. Christ's complete work from his incarnation to his resurrection is part of the atonement.No amount of IMPARTATION by the Holy Spirit short of complete and instant glorification of our life can satisfy God's righteous standard for justification and that simply does not occur until the resurrection. No INCOMPLETED righteousness satisfies God's standard of righteousness for justification. Your soterilogy is simply impossible as well as a complete and total rejection of Christ's atonement.
I certainly do believe itNo you do not!
I find it funny that you say this with Paul's writings in the book of Romans where he saysWhat little of the life of Christ we share is NEVER sufficient to justify
That by his death and resurrection and our being united to him in it certainly justifies us even with your forensic view of Justification.For if we have been united with him in a death like his, we shall certainly be united with him in a resurrection like his.