"I think the suffering of Romans 8:17 is inclusive of suffering unto death" might mean we must physically suffer death, or it might mean when we were spiritually baptized into Christ's death, we became partakers of Christ's suffering. I cannot tell exactly what you are saying.
2) We become heirs of God when we are born anew as spiritual children of God, and spiritual siblings of Christ.
3) Christ's prayer that God would glorify Him includes both is death of the cross as the Lamb of God, and His resurrection, John 17:5.
4) In John 17:10 Jesus says He has been glorified as God incarnate, i.e. the Word of God who became flesh speaking the very words of God.
5) Jesus had been glorified as one speaking the very words of God, and now His disciples have been given by Jesus, that same glory, to speak the very words of God, John 17:22.
6) In John 17:24, I think Jesus is asking that He appear to His disciples in His resurrected body, i.e. so they may behold His glory.
7) To repeat, Percho, you said, "which was part of the baptism of Matthew 20." Again, specifically what baptism, spiritual, water, figurative for His death, are you referring to??? And btw, my bible does not refer to baptism in Matthew 20. Why not reference Mark 10:38-39. That refers figuratively to Christ's actual physical death on the cross as "baptism."
There's nothing figurative about baptism in Mark 10. Baptized literally means "immersed"
Jesus was literally immersed in suffering when He died upon the cross. He wasn't figuratively immersed in suffering.
Matthew 20:22,23 But Jesus answered and said, Ye know not what ye ask. Are ye able to drink of the cup that I shall drink of, and to be baptized with the baptism that I am baptized with? They say unto him, We are able. And he saith unto them, Ye shall drink indeed of my cup, and be baptized with the baptism that I am baptized with: but to sit on my right hand, and on my left, is not mine to give, but it shall be given to them for whom it is prepared of my Father.