Then what does the KJV refer to when it says "corn" or "brass"?Originally posted by QuickeningSpirit:
Sorry, I don't need Greek to help me understand what I already know in English.
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Then what does the KJV refer to when it says "corn" or "brass"?Originally posted by QuickeningSpirit:
Sorry, I don't need Greek to help me understand what I already know in English.
The please explain this verse: Simon, [son] of Jonas, lovest thou me? Peter was grieved because he said unto him the third time, Lovest thou me? And he said unto him, Lord, thou knowest all things; thou knowest that I love thee.Originally posted by QuickeningSpirit:
I already knew the difference between love for my brother in Christ, love for my immediate family, love for Christ, and love for my wife, long before I ever heard the words "agape" and "phileo".
Sorry, I don't need Greek to help me understand what I already know in English.
Nobody said otherwise. British English and American English are both examples of Modern English. And the English of the KJV is Modern English.Originally posted by Johnv:
Not so at all!! King James English differs greatly from American English.
Nobody said it was.It is not wrong or unbiblical to use a Bible that was written in American English.
Then what does the KJV refer to when it says "corn" or "brass"? </font>[/QUOTE]Be more specific, man, context always gives the right answer.Originally posted by Johnv:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by QuickeningSpirit:
Sorry, I don't need Greek to help me understand what I already know in English.
Good, then we're in agreement. There's nothing biblically wrong with a person using the NIV.Originally posted by skanwmatos:
Nobody said it was.
The please explain this verse: Simon, [son] of Jonas, lovest thou me? Peter was grieved because he said unto him the third time, Lovest thou me? And he said unto him, Lord, thou knowest all things; thou knowest that I love thee. </font>[/QUOTE]Be specific. Do you want the contextual meaning of the word "lovest"? Or are you after a full exposition on why Peter was grieved that the Lord asked him a third time?Originally posted by Johnv:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by QuickeningSpirit:
I already knew the difference between love for my brother in Christ, love for my immediate family, love for Christ, and love for my wife, long before I ever heard the words "agape" and "phileo".
Sorry, I don't need Greek to help me understand what I already know in English.
You really are missing out on the richness of Scripture here, as well as understanding the nuances between the "love's" used with Peter and Christ. I wonder what else those who refuse to look at the Greek are missing.Originally posted by QuickeningSpirit:
Amen, Granny!Originally posted by GrannyGumbo:
And it seems strange to me that a college man, or anyone for that matter, can figure these terribly complicated 'puters out, but say they have a hard time with the KJBible?"A person understands what he wants to"!
"Most scholars teach the two different Greek words agape and phileo, mean two different things, or at the very least, two different types of love (such as, I love my wife and I love pizza). However, this does not bear itself out in the Greek New Testament. The simple fact is that these two words are used interchangeably, both meaning love. If phileo means friendship and not godly love, then why does Christ use it in Revelation 3:19? "As many as I love, I rebuke."Originally posted by ScottEmerson:
You really are missing out on the richness of Scripture here, as well as understanding the nuances between the "love's" used with Peter and Christ.
You really are missing out on the richness of Scripture here, as well as understanding the nuances between the "love's" used with Peter and Christ. I wonder what else those who refuse to look at the Greek are missing.Originally posted by ScottEmerson:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by QuickeningSpirit:
Junk? Did you even read it?Originally posted by QuickeningSpirit:
Don't jump so fast, man, I asked if you wanted a full exposition and now you come back with this junk?
Because there are two SPECIFIC meanings for each of the love. Why not find out which of the specific definitions God chose to use through the authors of the Bible?Ain't it funny you throw off on the KJB and then relate what the Greek says in English that is found in the definition of "love" in the first place.
You really can't believe this, can you? The English was translated FROM the Greek, not vice versa. How do we know if any translation is accurate unless we examine the original language? Seriously, this is one of the most asinine statememts I've seen on this board, and there are some characters here. I hope others see this and render the same verdict.Why does anyone need to go to the Greek to find what the English already says? That's like going from New York to Pittsburg , but first going to S.California to get there.![]()
Agape and Phileo are mentioned in Webster's? Please cite.You know, "agape" and "phileo" are found in the English definiton? Hmmm?![]()
[/QB]![]()
O.K. man what part of Greece is Florida in now?quote:
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Why does anyone need to go to the Greek to find what the English already says? That's like going from New York to Pittsburg , but first going to S.California to get there.
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You really can't believe this, can you? The English was translated FROM the Greek, not vice versa. How do we know if any translation is accurate unless we examine the original language? Seriously, this is one of the most asinine statememts I've seen on this board, and there are some characters here. I hope others see this and render the same verdict.
I know Greek, Latin, Hebrew, and English, so it's not just English that I know. It is definitely worthwhile to learn the Greek language, especially if you wish to be learned about the New Testament. There are nuances found in the Greek that are very difficult to explain in English, and are often unable to be translated smoothly in our language, as any language is.Originally posted by QuickeningSpirit:
Oh! I get it, you speak English, then study Greek to tell us what the Greek says in English? The train is beginning to slow down now, so fast! get ahold of it!
So agape nor phileo doesn't appear, so you weren't being completely honest in your statement: "You know, "agape" and "phileo" are found in the English definiton?"Webster's 1828:
Did'ja see it? May not be spelled "agape" or "phileo" but it's there!
Koine Greek defines itself. English provides translations, but not definitions.Hint: English can define Koine Greek, but Koine Greek doesn't define English.
How long have you held the position that the English is superior to the Greek? We haven't stumbled over anything - our position has been orthodox for twenty centuries.You guys have stumbled over this fact for at least, say, 130 years.[/QB]
It's no wonder you're so confused, much learning doth make thee mad.I know Greek, Latin, Hebrew, and English, so it's not just English that I know. It is definitely worthwhile to learn the Greek language, especially if you wish to be learned about the New Testament. There are nuances found in the Greek that are very difficult to explain in English, and are often unable to be translated smoothly in our language, as any language is.
Please tell me that you see a difference between two two. If you do not, then you're eyes are, indeed, closed. And, again, your original quote was, "You know, "agape" and "phileo" are found in the English definiton." You're hvaing to go back and change some things, as you've done before.Originally posted by QuickeningSpirit:
25 agapaw agapao ag-ap-ah’-o
perhaps from agan (much) [or cf 05689 bge]; TDNT-1:21,5; v
AV-love 135, beloved 7; 142
1) of persons
1a) to welcome, to entertain, to be fond of, to love dearly
2) of things
2a) to be well pleased, to be contented at or with a thing
5368 filew phileo fil-eh’-o
from 5384; TDNT-9:114,1262; v
AV-love 22, kiss 3; 25
1) to love
1a) to approve of
1b) to like
1c) sanction
1d) to treat affectionately or kindly, to welcome, befriend
2) to show signs of love
2a) to kiss
3) to be fond of doing
3a) be wont, use to do
You didn't say which dictionary. I thought it improprer to post all resources in one post so as to not take up so much space. I have 4 more at the touch of a button.
"Know better?" How can you if you refuse to understand the basic principles of translation? If you, indeed, believe that the English supercedes the Greek, then you should do that which you despise - learn something.Your arguement is fruitless and arrogantly obnoxious to those of us who know better. And geuss what, all in perfect harmony with the King James Bible, that can't be said about the multitudes of contradictory mv's though. I suppose that is what you come up with when you use corrupt mss/alexandrian.
Yeah, you know how the Bible over and over again encourages us to remain in ignorance. It appears that you are actually frightened of learning - is that perhaps because you are afraid that you may learn something that would cause you to abandon your presuppositions?It's no wonder you're so confused, much learning doth make thee mad.
Except that you got it wrong. The context is this:Originally posted by QuickeningSpirit:
Jesus was telling Peter that his love needed maturing, indicated by the feeding of the lambs, then progressing to the feeding of sheep, then perfected by realization of He Who gets the glory for it and deserving of that level and sort of love.
Thanks for reminding me to look at the passage again with consideration. All within my King James Bible. God gave me another thought to maybe preach a message on this soon.![]()
I wonder, were your teachers as arrogant and lift up in pride?Know better?" How can you if you refuse to understand the basic principles of translation? If you, indeed, believe that the English supercedes the Greek, then you should do that which you despise - learn something.
Except that you got it wrong. The context is this:Originally posted by Johnv:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by QuickeningSpirit:
Jesus was telling Peter that his love needed maturing, indicated by the feeding of the lambs, then progressing to the feeding of sheep, then perfected by realization of He Who gets the glory for it and deserving of that level and sort of love.
Thanks for reminding me to look at the passage again with consideration. All within my King James Bible. God gave me another thought to maybe preach a message on this soon.![]()
What is prideful? Asking you to learn something? Isn't that what pastors and teachers do?Originally posted by QuickeningSpirit:
I wonder, were your teachers as arrogant and lift up in pride?
It is not that I despise your learning. It is that you are not looking in any of the correct places. As John pointed out, knowing the Greek DIRECTLY affects our understanding of the passage. You choose to remain in ignorance, becaue you believe that the English supercedes the Greek. Your hermeneutics don't match up to orthodoxy.I enjoy learning, you despise my learning because it doesn't agree with your boast.
That's a violation of one of the Baptist Board rules, but I'll let it pass. The tools that I use are the Greek and Hebrew languages. Those are the ones that God chose to write the Bible in, so I would be very careful to intimate that those tools are from Satan. It's a very egregrious thing to say something like that about the Maker of the universe.Your "tools' are the tools of a trade, but your master is not a builder, but the destroyer.
Good day, not Godspeed. [/QB]