Paul to the Greeks.

[Scott Downey]

As Peter stated, his name is ONLY name given that saves lost Jews and gentiles!

something of interest in that verse is the word 'must' not 'can' is used.

Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.

Acts 4:12 - Bible Gateway

If the word 'can' had been used, that would imply some kind of choice.
Because of God electing us, we must be saved.
Christ must save His people, Christ must lose nothing of all that God has given Him, that is God's will.

John 6:38-40
New King James Version

38 For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me.
39 This is the will of the Father who sent Me, that of all He has given Me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up at the last day.
40 And this is the will of Him who sent Me, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in Him may have everlasting life; and I will raise him up at the last day.”

Luke 15:4
“What man of you, having a hundred sheep, if he loses one of them, does not leave the ninety-nine in the wilderness, and go after the one which is lost until he finds it?

Christ acknowledges His lost sheep, they belong to Him, yet dont know it until He rescues them.

 

[Dave G]

A clear distinction must be established between the Gospel spoken in Scripture to the Jews and the same Gospel spoken to Gentiles.

They are the very same Gospel with no distinction.
I see that while the Jews need less information to establish who Christ is, I also hold that all of that information is just as vital to both Jews and Gentiles in knowing who He is.

The distinction lies with different language and imagery being used upon these two groups since each had their own world view.

Jesus spoke only the language of Law and Jewish heritage to His people, although there were indeed a few Gentiles to whom He ministered, such as the Greek Syrophoenician Woman, and the Centurion.

Being a Pharisee steeped in both Hebrew Theology and Greek culture, Paul correctly spoke to both groups. The Gentile Gospel is demonstrated in Acts 17 by his evangelism on Athenian Mars Hill. To them, Paul spoke nothing of sin, law, prophecy, sacrificial blood propitiation, spiritual rebirth, or discipleship. He spoke no parables. He did not speak the name of Jesus, and only referred to Him as "That Man." He even said God up until then had "winked" at their idolatry.

And yet, Peter, Paul and John fill us in, as believers, on all these details later on in their many letters given to us through Jesus Christ.

Also, I notice that, regardless of how he preached at Mars Hill, Paul did not leave out the name of Jesus when he preached to both Jews and Gentiles at Antioch of Psydia ( Acts of the Apostles 13:14-49 ), but rather gave all who were listening the very same information...
Christ and Him crucified.

I also see that the Gentiles who were ordained to eternal life in Acts of the Apostles 13:48, believed the preaching of Jesus Christ.
No one else did.

Why?
Because they were ordained to eternal life.

 

[Dave G]

The significant point Paul demonstrated in vs. 27 concerning Soteriology to Gentiles is his use of the word asa, #686, translated KJV as "haply." Asa in Strong's is defined as "perhaps, from a conclusion, whether or not, if ever, lest somehow, by any means."

I agree.

Paul uses "haply" to specify how these Greek Gentiles would come to God if they "might feel after him, and find him" (vs. 27).

Again, I agree ( emphasis in bold text mine ).

We as men would come to God IF we might feel after Him.
To me, that is not in question.

The question is, "why don't we?"

 

[Dave G]

Such a Divinely intentional use of this particular word, along with the phrase "might feel," disallows any kind of Soteriology to Gentiles involving incapacitated nonsentient thinking, predetermined election, limited atonement, or irresistible grace.

Respectfully, I disagree.

In the light of Romans 1:18-32, Romans 3:10-18, John 3:19-20 and many others, both Jews and Gentiles would come to God if they might feel after Him...
But we don't and won't.

To me, simply pointing out that "might feel" disallows any kind of hard-heartedness, spiritually, does not take into account that God does indeed extend His hand to humanity through His goodness ( Romans 2:4 );
A hand that is refused and ignored ( and even bitten ) by many of us because that extended hand also includes the condition that we repent of our sins.

As for "incapacitated nonsentient thinking", I believe you misunderstand what is being stated by many "Calvinistic" preachers and teachers...
No one is actually incapacitated or non-sentient.
All men are perfectly capable of regarding / perceiving the words of the Gospel and of God...
The problem is not one of literal inability, but one of spiritual inability by way of a willful rejection of them.

See 1 Corinthians 1:18-31.

The preaching of the cross is, to them that perish, foolishness...
But to us which are saved, it is the power of God.

As for predetermined election, that is something that the Bible teaches and does so in no uncertain terms.
All one has to do is to actually believe the words of Ephesians 1:4-11, Romans 8:28-30, Romans 9, 2 Thessalonians 2:13-14, John 6:37-65, John 8:43-47 and many others, and it should become obvious.
Election is both corporate and individual, and is easily found in the words, "For whom he did foreknow...", along with the words, " vessels of wrath" and "vessels of mercy".
Finally, this comes to mind:

" So then [it is] not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy." ( Romans 9:16 ).

What is the "not of him" speaking of?
The promise spoken of in Romans 9:6-13...that "in Isaac" shall the seed be called ( summoned ),
as well as:

" for [the children] being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth;" ( Romans 9:11 ).



Good evening to you, sir.

 

[Jacob59]

What is the object of faith? Faith in what? Faith directed to whom?

peace to you

Faith in God is not imaginary speculation being preached from the pulpit, and parroted by gullible people.

According to the Bible, faith is nothing more than holding to righteousness through Christ and being resurrected.

 

[Jacob59]

I agree.

Again, I agree ( emphasis in bold text mine ).

We as men would come to God IF we might feafter Him.
To me, that is not in question.

The question is, "why don't we?"

Feeling after God is the question for Gentiles, according to Acts 17. Why do you try to change it? (Hint: you spoke the self centered phrase "To me.")

 

[Jacob59]

Respectfully, I disagree.

In the light of Romans 1:18-32, Romans 3:10-18, John 3:19-20 and many others, both Jews and Gentiles would come to God if they might feel after Him...
But we don't and won't.

To me, simply pointing out that "might feel" disallows any kind of hard-heartedness, spiritually, does not take into account that God does indeed extend His hand to humanity through His goodness ( Romans 2:4 );
A hand that is refused and ignored ( and even bitten ) by many of us because that extended hand also includes the condition that we repent of our sins.

As for "incapacitated nonsentient thinking", I believe you misunderstand what is being stated by many "Calvinistic" preachers and teachers...
No one is actually incapacitated or non-sentient.
All men are perfectly capable of regarding / perceiving the words of the Gospel and of God...
The problem is not one of literal inability, but one of spiritual inability by way of a willful rejection of them.

See 1 Corinthians 1:18-31.

The preaching of the cross is, to them that perish, foolishness...
But to us which are saved, it is the power of God.

As for predetermined election, that is something that the Bible teaches and does so in no uncertain terms.
All one has to do is to actually believe the words of Ephesians 1:4-11, Romans 8:28-30, Romans 9, 2 Thessalonians 2:13-14, John 6:37-65, John 8:43-47 and many others, and it should become obvious.
Election is both corporate and individual, and is easily found in the words, "For whom he did foreknow...", along with the words, " vessels of wrath" and "vessels of mercy".
Finally, this comes to mind:

" So then [it is] not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy." ( Romans 9:16 ).

What is the "not of him" speaking of?
The promise spoken of in Romans 9:6-13...that "in Isaac" shall the seed be called ( summoned ),
as well as:

" for [the children] being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth;" ( Romans 9:11 ).



Good evening to you, sir.

How does preaching of the cross materially affect you?

 

[Jacob59]

As Peter stated, his name is ONLY name given that saves lost Jews and gentiles!

Why didn't Paul speak the ONLY name to the Atenian Greeks?

(PS. There is an answer.)

 

[Dave G]

Feeling after God is the question for Gentiles, according to Acts 17. Why do you try to change it? (Hint: you spoke the self centered phrase "To me.")

I don't.
I simply believe God's words about man's spiritual condition before Him.

How does preaching of the cross materially affect you?

It's the power of God to me.
To others it is not.

Why didn't Paul speak the ONLY name to the Atenian Greeks?

Because the Bible tells us that we already know who Jesus Christ is ( Romans 1:18-20 ).

Of course, Paul later spoke it to those who "cleaved" ( stuck to ) him ( Acts of the Apostles 17:34 ), because the Lord gave to him the care of the churches ( those who have believed on Christ, see 2 Corinthians 11:28 ).

 

[canadyjd]

Faith in God is not imaginary speculation being preached from the pulpit, and parroted by gullible people.

According to the Bible, faith is nothing more than holding to righteousness through Christ and being resurrected.

Maybe you could give an example or two of “imaginary speculation.... parroted by gullible people”?

Please show me where in the Bible faith is said to be “nothing more than holding to righteousness through Christ and being resurrected”?

Maybe you could explain what “holding to righteousness through Christ” looks like?

I don’t see how faith means “being resurrected” Being resurrected (in Christ) is an act of God.

I see faith as trusting in the truth of God’s revelation; specifically as it pertains to the person and work of Jesus Christ as Savior and Lord as revealed in scripture.

peace to you

 

[Jacob59]

I don't.
I simply believe God's words about man's spiritual condition before Him.

It's the power of God to me.
To others it is not.

Because the Bible tells us that we already know who Jesus Christ is ( Romans 1:18-20 ).

Of course, Paul later spoke it to those who "cleaved" ( stuck to ) him ( Acts of the Apostles 17:34 ), because the Lord gave to him the care of the churches ( those who have believed on Christ, see 2 Corinthians 11:28 ).

Did the Bible say the Atenian Greeks "already knew Jesus?" Yes? No?

 

[Jacob59]

Maybe you could give an example or two of “imaginary speculation.... parroted by gullible people”?

Please show me where in the Bible faith is said to be “nothing more than holding to righteousness through Christ and being resurrected”?

Maybe you could explain what “holding to righteousness through Christ” looks like?

I don’t see how faith means “being resurrected” Being resurrected (in Christ) is an act of God.

I see faith as trusting in the truth of God’s revelation; specifically as it pertains to the person and work of Jesus Christ as Savior and Lord as revealed in scripture.

peace to you

Yes, thereby it appears crucial to expect others to say anything about Jesus to be worded "just right." But, such froward people are condemned by God.

 

[Jacob59]

Respectfully, I disagree.

In the light of Romans 1:18-32, Romans 3:10-18, John 3:19-20 and many others, both Jews and Gentiles would come to God if they might feel after Him...
But we don't and won't.

To me, simply pointing out that "might feel" disallows any kind of hard-heartedness, spiritually, does not take into account that God does indeed extend His hand to humanity through His goodness ( Romans 2:4 );
A hand that is refused and ignored ( and even bitten ) by many of us because that extended hand also includes the condition that we repent of our sins.

As for "incapacitated nonsentient thinking", I believe you misunderstand what is being stated by many "Calvinistic" preachers and teachers...
No one is actually incapacitated or non-sentient.
All men are perfectly capable of regarding / perceiving the words of the Gospel and of God...
The problem is not one of literal inability, but one of spiritual inability by way of a willful rejection of them.

See 1 Corinthians 1:18-31.

The preaching of the cross is, to them that perish, foolishness...
But to us which are saved, it is the power of God.

As for predetermined election, that is something that the Bible teaches and does so in no uncertain terms.
All one has to do is to actually believe the words of Ephesians 1:4-11, Romans 8:28-30, Romans 9, 2 Thessalonians 2:13-14, John 6:37-65, John 8:43-47 and many others, and it should become obvious.
Election is both corporate and individual, and is easily found in the words, "For whom he did foreknow...", along with the words, " vessels of wrath" and "vessels of mercy".
Finally, this comes to mind:

" So then [it is] not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy." ( Romans 9:16 ).

What is the "not of him" speaking of?
The promise spoken of in Romans 9:6-13...that "in Isaac" shall the seed be called ( summoned ),
as well as:

" for [the children] being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth;" ( Romans 9:11 ).



Good evening to you, sir.

Yes, it is apparent "To Me" frames these comments.

I do have wonderful Blessings, not from default talk, but of substance given by The Father through Christ.

 

[Dave G]

Did the Bible say the Atenian Greeks "already knew Jesus?" Yes? No?

Again, the Bible says that all men know who the members of the Godhead are...
Father, Son and Holy Spirit ( Romans 1:18-20 ).

That does not mean that we all know Him personally.

Yes, it is apparent "To Me" frames these comments.

Respectfully, "to me" is a subjective term that I use, because I recognize that not everyone agrees with my observations of the Scriptures.

I do have wonderful Blessings, not from default talk, but of substance given by The Father through Christ.

Amen, sir.
Each and every word is a blessing to me ( Matthew 4:4, Luke 4:4 ).

 

[Barry Johnson]

there is but ONE Gospel, given to save both the jew and the gentile!

One good news? luke 9.6 was only good news to Jews .

 

[Barry Johnson]

A clear distinction must be established between the Gospel spoken in Scripture to the Jews and the same Gospel spoken to Gentiles. The distinction lies with different language and imagery being used upon these two groups since each had their own world view.

Jesus spoke only the language of Law and Jewish heritage to His people, although there were indeed a few Gentiles to whom He ministered, such as the Greek Syrophoenician Woman, and the Centurion.

Being a Pharisee steeped in both Hebrew Theology and Greek culture, Paul correctly spoke to both groups. The Gentile Gospel is demonstrated in Acts 17 by his evangelism on Athenian Mars Hill. To them, Paul spoke nothing of sin, law, prophecy, sacrificial blood propitiation, spiritual rebirth, or discipleship. He spoke no parables. He did not speak the name of Jesus, and only referred to Him as "That Man." He even said God up until then had "winked" at their idolatry.

The significant point Paul demonstrated in vs. 27 concerning Soteriology to Gentiles is his use of the word asa, #686, translated KJV as "haply." Asa in Strong's is defined as "perhaps, from a conclusion, whether or not, if ever, lest somehow, by any means."

Paul uses "haply" to specify how these Greek Gentiles would come to God if they "might feel after him, and find him" (vs. 27). Such a Divinely intentional use of this particular word, along with the phrase "might feel," disallows any kind of Soteriology to Gentiles involving incapacitated nonsentient thinking, predetermined election, limited atonement, or irresistible grace. Perseverance is a seperate issue.

Praise God for allowing His Word to specify its own doctrine unto Gentiles. This marvelous power of the Gospel by God's Mercy unto the Gentiles in no manner conflicts with Paul's later statements showing corporate election upon the Church after individual rebirth and entry by adoption into the elected Kingdom takes place.

Could a person be saved today by preaching the gospel they were preaching in luke 9.6 ?

 

[Barry Johnson]

A clear distinction must be established between the Gospel spoken in Scripture to the Jews and the same Gospel spoken to Gentiles. The distinction lies with different language and imagery being used upon these two groups since each had their own world view.

Jesus spoke only the language of Law and Jewish heritage to His people, although there were indeed a few Gentiles to whom He ministered, such as the Greek Syrophoenician Woman, and the Centurion.

Being a Pharisee steeped in both Hebrew Theology and Greek culture, Paul correctly spoke to both groups. The Gentile Gospel is demonstrated in Acts 17 by his evangelism on Athenian Mars Hill. To them, Paul spoke nothing of sin, law, prophecy, sacrificial blood propitiation, spiritual rebirth, or discipleship. He spoke no parables. He did not speak the name of Jesus, and only referred to Him as "That Man." He even said God up until then had "winked" at their idolatry.

The significant point Paul demonstrated in vs. 27 concerning Soteriology to Gentiles is his use of the word asa, #686, translated KJV as "haply." Asa in Strong's is defined as "perhaps, from a conclusion, whether or not, if ever, lest somehow, by any means."

Paul uses "haply" to specify how these Greek Gentiles would come to God if they "might feel after him, and find him" (vs. 27). Such a Divinely intentional use of this particular word, along with the phrase "might feel," disallows any kind of Soteriology to Gentiles involving incapacitated nonsentient thinking, predetermined election, limited atonement, or irresistible grace. Perseverance is a seperate issue.

Praise God for allowing His Word to specify its own doctrine unto Gentiles. This marvelous power of the Gospel by God's Mercy unto the Gentiles in no manner conflicts with Paul's later statements showing corporate election upon the Church after individual rebirth and entry by adoption into the elected Kingdom takes place.

What is the Gospel?

 

[Barry Johnson]

there is but ONE Gospel, given to save both the jew and the gentile!

Which is ?

 

[Jacob59]

Again, the Bible says that all men know who the members of the Godhead are...
Father, Son and Holy Spirit ( Romans 1:18-20 ).

That does not mean that we all know Him personally.

Respectfully, "to me" is a subjective term that I use, because I recognize that not everyone agrees with my observations of the Scriptures.


Amen, sir.
Each and every word is a blessing to me ( Matthew 4:4, Luke 4:4 ).

It is so true all people know something about a moral dimension, but so false they know what it is. That is the whole point of Sinful nature, a deluded perception blocking Truth.

Tell me how "each word" in Isaiah blesses you. Do you understand each word? I doubt it.

 

[Barry Johnson]

It is so true all people know something about a moral dimension, but so false they know what it is. That is the whole point of Sinful nature, a deluded perception blocking Truth.

Tell me how "each word" in Isaiah blesses you. Do you understand each word? I doubt it.

Sin nature. Which verse?