What theological juggling enables you to say that crushing the Lord Jesus and putting Him to grief does not involve pain and suffering? We all know where the Lord Jesus was 'crushed' - at the cross! Did that involve no pain? Did the 'wounds,' the chastisement,' the 'stripes,' the 'oppression,' the 'cutting off,' the 'striking,' the 'pouring out of His soul unto death' involve no suffering? And who does the verse say did all that?You are wrong.
Re-read that passage.
Isaiah 53:10 But the Lord was pleased
To crush Him, putting Him to grief;
If He would render Himself as a guilt offering,
He will see His offspring,
He will prolong His days,
And the good pleasure of the Lord will prosper in His hand.
Nowhere does the verse, as you claim, say the Father inflicted pain and suffering on Him. That is your addition to Scripture (and the reason that idea was never held by Christians until the 15th Century).
I know that you have previously argued that
"My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?" really means
"My God, My God, You haven't forsaken Me."
What sleight of hand will you use to pretend that
"Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise Him; He has put Him to grief" really means
"Yet it did not please the LORD to bruise Him; He has not put Him to grief"?