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Perfect VS Accurate

Which one do you believe?


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TCassidy

Late-Administator Emeritus
Administrator
That is not what the KJB translators did. The scriptures at that time were for the most part in the original languages and unaccessible to the common man. Their goal was to print the scriptures in English so that every man could read and learn the Word of God for himself.
That is simply untrue. The bible had been available in English since around 1300, over 300 years prior to the publication of the KJV. It had been available in English translated from the same Greek textform used by the KJV translators since 1525, 86 years before the publication of the KJV.

In fact the KJV was simply a revision of the Bishop's Bible, the official pulpit bible of the Anglican Church.

You really should do some serious study before making such absurd statements. They make you seem quite ignorant and foolish.
 

NaasPreacher (C4K)

Well-Known Member
Kinda the way some of our government leaders tell us they are doing things for our good, when really they are taking away individual rights, giving power to themselves.


Would this be kind of what the English government did in 1611 when it forced their translation on the people for their own good?
 

NaasPreacher (C4K)

Well-Known Member
That is not what the KJB translators did. The scriptures at that time were for the most part in the original languages and unaccessible to the common man. Their goal was to print the scriptures in English so that every man could read and learn the Word of God for himself.

And yet you would deprive English speakers of the 21st century God's word in their own language so that they read and learn it themselves?
 

gb93433

Active Member
Site Supporter
There are those who believe that some documents which were dictated were not quite correct and that Paul crossed out the incorrect and wrote in the correct letter. Anyone who has studied knows that some words sound almost alike but are a different tense.
 

gb93433

Active Member
Site Supporter
That is not what the KJB translators did. The scriptures at that time were for the most part in the original languages and unaccessible to the common man. Their goal was to print the scriptures in English so that every man could read and learn the Word of God for himself.
I tend to think it was more political than that. They already had a good translation at the time. Why the need for a KJV not much later?
 

TCassidy

Late-Administator Emeritus
Administrator
Ok, so he was the first anglicized Catholic. :laugh:
Pope Paul IV declared Erasmus to be a heretic from Rome and placed all of his writings on the Roman Index of Prohibited Books in 1559.

At the time of the Reformation Erasmus initially sided with Luther but later broke with him over Luther's break with Rome and Erasmus's belief in "free will." He was most influenced by the Dutch reformers known as Mennonites, one of the sects of ana-baptists in northern Europe. To suggest Erasmus was Anglo-Catholic, a pejorative term used for Anglicans, is simply ignorant. His attempts at impartiality make it almost impossible to place him in any of the existing ecclesiastical organizations of that time.
 

rsr

<b> 7,000 posts club</b>
Moderator
His attempts at impartiality make it almost impossible to place him in any of the existing ecclesiastical organizations of that time.

While Paul IV prohibited his books, Paul III wanted to make him a cardinal. Luther came to despise him ("he is the worst foe of Christ that has arisen in the last thousand years"), though Melancthon did not. He left Basel when it became Reformed, only to return and be buried in the cathedral. So far as I know, he did not deny any of the Catholic major Catholic dogmas.
 
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