Really? Then please explain why it says in Zech. 12:10 that the Jews would "mourn for Him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for Him, as one that is in bitterness for his firstborn."
Is this basically what you believe:
Zec 12:10 And I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of supplications: and they shall look upon me whom they have pierced,
(2000 year and counting gap) and they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his firstborn.
You separate the part John says was fulfilled at the Cross and the rest by a few centuries?
I believe they probably were mourning about Jesus when the Romans had them surrounded in Jerusalem for three and a half years. As they were starving to death, being killed by their fellow Jews or roasting their own children to eat they probably remembered the words of Jesus about this coming day and who He said He was. Just a guess though.
But don’t stop with just Zech 12, how about Zech 13:1? Still future? How about 13:7? What did Matthew have to say about that? Zech 14 speaks of the “day of the Lord” which Malachi also spoke of.
Didn't they all mock Him at His crucifixion? You see Grasshopper, this is just another example of a prophesy with more than one fulfillment.
More than one fulfillment? You were making the case that it hadn’t had its first fulfillment yet. Which is it?
If prophecies have more than one fulfillment, who gets to decide which one have more than one? Jack Van Impe?
If a prophecy can have two fulfillments why not three? Four? Five, etc…? Perhaps Jesus is only the first fulfillment of a yet greater Messiah who is still to come?
Where do we stop with this nonsense?
And you might also explain Rev. 1:7 which even Preterists must admit was written after the crucifixion
Rev 1:7 Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they also which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen.
Now who did John say were the ones who pierced Jesus? Remember? That was your homework for Zech 12:10. It seems to me those who pierced Him in Zech 12:10 are the same referred to in Rev 1:7 and whom John says were the ones there at the crucifixion. Is it your belief that is some future Jews who God accuses of piercing Jesus? But since your into literalism lets put Rev 1:7 in the time context which is given to us.
Rev 1:1 The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to shew unto his servants
things which must shortly come to pass ; and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John:
Rev 1:3 Blessed is he that readeth, and they that hear the words of this prophecy, and keep those things which are written therein: for the
time is at hand .
This is where the re-wording/re-defining literalist do their best work.
And BTW, do you take these verses that I brought up literally about His visual appearing?
Here we go with the literal again. Read the first 9 verse of Zech 10, since this is where we are, and tell me if you take everything literally.
When Jesus appeared to Paul, did he see Him?
Act 9:17 And Ananias went his way, and entered into the house; and putting his hands on him said, Brother Saul, the Lord, even Jesus, that
appeared unto thee in the way as thou camest, hath sent me, that thou mightest receive thy sight, and be filled with the Holy Ghost.
Since I believe His coming was in the destruction of Jerusalem then yes, I believe they saw His coming.
Partial-preterist would probably agree with you on Acts 1, referring to His final Coming. However I do not believe this coming is a different one than Matt 16:27-28 or Matt 26:64 or several other NT references.