More About the Christology Test
I had asked you to think about just who Christ died for:
1. Unfallen angels
2. Old Testament believers
3. Believers living during Christ's ministry (on earth)
4. All who will come to belief in Christ.
5. Old Testament unbelievers.
6. Unbelievers living during Christ's ministry (on earth).
7. All who will die without faith in Christ.
8. Fallen angels.
The usual quick responses are variations of "Christ died for everyone." or "Christ died for everyone, you unbelieving liberal!" But when pressed to the actual breakdown of the question, which I have tried to do with the chart, many are forced to say that, well, He didn't die for the angels, fallen or unfallen. The last-mentioned don't need rescue, the first are beyond it. At any rate Scripture clearly teaches that God "does not give aid to angels", Heb. 2:16.
But what about the rest? What about fallen humanity, categories 2- 7?
Surely Christ died for all these. But a closer inquiry, with an open Bible, forces us to qualify even this.
But even without an open Bible, however, we can already ask this:
Why would Christ die for those who have already lived, died and are now in Hell?
Also: Why would He die for those God pointedly raised up to show His power in their destruction, like Pharaoh? Ex. 7:20; Rom. 9:17
If you agree that Christ did not die for those already in Hell then you would agree with me, I assume, to cross out category 5 (Old Testament unbelievers). If you disagree with this point, I would like to hear from you.
"Fine", you might say "He didn't die for those already dead in their sins, but there is still logically hope for those in categories 6 and 7, those who will prove to have been unbelievers, though not so at the time of Christ's free offer of mercy".
But by what basis are these people any different from those Old Testament unbelievers? God has no need for the benefit of hindsight. His foreknowledge leaves nothing in doubt or obscurity (not to say His predestination, though, for argument's sake, I am keeping this out of the discussion). When it comes to His creatures "the night" as the Psalmist assures us "is as daytime to Him".
The next question is, seeing that the obedience or disobedience of every soul after Calvary is just as clear to Him as the response of those before, why should Christ die for everyone, seeing that He knows those who will become believers (by His grace)? The answer is that He didn't die for everyone. He died for the elect, the elect of both Testaments, categories 2- 4 . Please consider these verses:
John 17:8- 10:
"For I have given to them the words which You have given Me; and they have received them, and have known surely that I came forth from You; and they have believed that You sent Me.
I pray for them. I do not pray for the world, but for those whom You have given Me, for they are Yours.
And all Mine are Yours, and Yours are Mine, and I am glorified in them."
Notice three things:
1.That there are some for whom Christ does not pray. But who could these be, if Christ died for all humanity? And if you still maintain that Christ did indeed die for all humanity, then why did Christ not pray for these people?
What is easier: to pray for a people ... or to die for them?
2. Notice also that the ones prayed for are the very ones who were given to Christ by the Father - and no others.
3. The last point is that these same people are the ones who "glorify the Father". And how do they do this? By obedience and growth in holiness. These are the ones who "follow the Lamb wherever He goes." That following is the fruit of sovereign election, not a means to it.
raying: