Originally posted by Ben W:
Refer to John 1:1, the Word is Jesus, the Bible is the word with a small w.
"to teleion" is in the neuter, no questions asked. It does not refer to Christ. Christ is a man, not an it. Likewise the word logos is masculine (John 1:1). But there are many words for "word," some of which are neuter, as the book itself does not take a specific gender.
The greatest argument here is the context. The context is revelation--the revelation of the Word of God. The three gifts mentioned in 13:8 are revelatory gifts having to do with God's revelation, the Word of God. That which is perfect is God's revelation, the Bible, the Word of God. Chapter 14 carries on the discussion of revelation, contrasting two different types of revelation: tongues and prophesy, and clearly pointing out the usefulness of one (prophesy) over the other. The enrire context here is revelation, not Jesus Christ.
[QB]
The canon was most certainley not completed with the completion of the Book of Revelation in the first century,
You are not making much sense here. The book of Revelation was the last book to be written (approximately 98 A.D.). And with that the canon was complete. It is that simple. No one claimed that all of a sudden all the believers had a completed Bible as we do today. They had a completed canon. The canon was completed by God, not by man. Not everyone had access to it then, and not everyone has access to it today. In fact the Bible still is not translated into every language of the world.
the church was spreading out across the globe and there was no such thing as paper, hence individuals did not have copies of any completed canon to preach from.
Yes, and Guttenberg hadn't invented the printing press either. The most common method of reproducing the Word, was scribes copying it on papyrus, a paper-like scroll made out of the weeds that grew in the marshes. More expensive copies were made on velum, from the hides of animals.
The Old Testament was completed by 450 B.C., and a complete translation in Greek (the Septuagint) made in 250 B.C. As Christianity grew, Christians took whatever scroll they had, O.T. and N.T. and travelled with them. When I travel (within the city), I don't always carry the "completed word of God" with me. Sometimes I have just the New Testament, and sometimes just the Book of Romans and John. Just because I don't personally have the completed Word of God with me, doesn't mean that the "completed Word of God" doesn't exist.

Yet this is your logic here.
In fact, as the Bible itself uses references too, the book of Enoch was being used in the early church also.
Yes of course it does. The authors of the Bible were not ignorant men. They were well educated men that could quote from Biblical sources, and in some cases sources outside the Bible. Paul quoted from a Greek poet and from a Cretian prophet.
It was not until the Eleventh Century that the Russian Church had a Bible that was placed in there churches and copies made available to people that anything like a canon became available, in our modern era it was not until 1611 that a canon of scripture became available to Anglo Saxon people.
Do you think with any luck the Punjabi speaking people of Pakistan will get a Bible in their own langauge by the end of the 21st Century? It hasn't happened yet. So the Russian Church was privileged enough to have a translation 11 centuries earlier, or almost 11 centuries after the death of Christ.
Study church history, Tounges are recorded as being used in the third century, miracles too.
Yes, mostly by heretical sects. Speaking in tongues among the unsaved heathen is often a direct result of demon possession.
Also, I maintain that Jesus is "Perfect", which means absolultley completely free from error. There is no version or revision of the Bible that is free from any error in translation, what we are being presented is good, but not perfect as Jesus is.
"to telion" more accurately has the meaning of completed, as the Old English word "perfect" means. "When that which is 'perfected' or 'completed' is come." Jesus didn't need to be completed. He already was. The translation doesn't even make sense by inserting Christ in there. Besides, as noted before, it doesn't do justice to the context. The context is revelation, not Christ. Keep things in context. You can make the Bible say anything you want to, when you take things out of context.
Show me in the Bible where it says that the Canon is the Perfect Word of God?
God's Word is perfect; it always has been.
James 1:25 But whoso looketh into
the perfect law of liberty, and continueth therein, he being not a forgetful hearer, but a doer of the work, this man shall be blessed in his deed.
Psalms 19:7
The law of the LORD is perfect, converting the soul: the testimony of the LORD is sure, making wise the simple.
DHK