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Obviously, neither do you. So you can't prove me wrong without a tremendous jump in reasoning. You are willing to make that jump, I am not. I refuse because that jump requires ignoring what God has preserved for us.This is the root of the problem, since you don't have the originals you don't know 1, 2 or 3.
Yes, as are you. But you are confused. That is not PA. As I pointed out, you started this thread with a completely fallacious position.But the reality of the situation is you are wholly dependent upon God's providence (PA) for the book just like you are for the canon.
Actually we do. It is you who do not.You have no empirical method to determine the canon nor which is the oldest most reliable manuscripts.
No it's not. Your page 4 post was completely refuted and shown to be irrelevant. It has nothing to do with PA.And to pursue such is to contradict PA as I stated on the page 4 post.
Yes indeed. And many others throughout church history.God providentially guided men (like King James Prov.21:1) to give us the book.
First, there is empirical evidence ot lean on. We have thousands of manuscripts of varying length and quality, combined with thousands of ancient versions. You can empirically view what God has preserved for us.There is no empiricism to lean on so quit acting like modern scholars discovered better manuscripts through science and they correct the bible that was self authenticating to the historical church (see the confessions).
I don't think they are all equal. Among those three, the NASB is probably the best; the NIV is probably second best, but close to the KJV.And quit pretending that the NIV NASB and KJV are all equal.
Because language changes.Why do they exist if they are the same thing?
There are a number of reasons behind this, no doubt. None of which are relevant to the argument here.Why did modernist scholars feel the need to give them to us if it is just a matter of preference.
What? Darwinism and science have nothing to do with this.It just happens that with the rise of Darwinism came the elevation of empiricism and the sycophantic scholars trailing behind saying you can believe the bible it's scientific (contrary to PA).
But he uses them, just as he used scholars such as Erasmus and the translators of the KJV. Your whole argument here is based on scholarship, that of Van Til and Bahnsen. Don't knock scholarship. Without it, you wouldn't have any Bible.God doesn't need scholars to help him
I don't know any any evangelical who questions these verses. I certainly don't. A few question 1 John 5:7 and assert that it should be there. It shouldn't, but that is a small issue. And again, it is off topic.... once you begin to question say 8 or 9 verses on the deity of Christ (1 Tim.3:16, John 3:13, 1 Cor.15:47, 1 Jn. 5:7, Act 20:28, Rev.1:11, Phil 2:6, 1 Jn. 3:16, Mic.5:2),
You don't employ them, but you depend on those who do. Erasmus was using empirical methods when he compiled the TR. He used empirical methods in each of his revisions (where the "book" changed). The KJV translators used empirical methods in their original translation, and then subsquent editors used them to revise the KJV to the two differing versions we have today.you have to employ empirical methods to decide which are the words of God.
No I don't.And you then have to suspend dependence upon any particular verse until you validate them all.
No I don't.And you ultimately attempt to believe the truth of the bible without the actual verses of the bible.
I am not in a dilemma. PA has nothing to do with this. And I konw what the Bible consists of. So far, you are the only one here that I have seen that is confused.This is a dilemma you leave yourself in while abandoning PA and trying to find out what the bible really consists of.
I have it, have laid hold on it, have it laying in front of me as I prepare to preach on Christmas Eve and Christmas morning. The dots are connected. And your approach to this topic shows a misunderstanding of PA, a misunderstanding of the whole textual issue and how we have modern translations. And yes, you have draw illegitimate and illogical conclusions because of your slothfulness of thought, not becuase of mine. I am simply the messenger; don't shoot me because you haven't thought through this sufficiently to understand the issues.Get it Larry, lay hold upon it, connect the dots. Don't accuse others of being irrational, illogical and pretentious to cover your slothfulness of thought.
Tee heeOriginally posted by AV:
Ed,
Take your medicine and go home, I think I hear your mom calling.
You need to read again for several reasons. 1) I have not really tried to mount an argument. Your position is so far off base it doesn't warrant one. 2) I have pointed out some of the many fallacies with your position, including the fact that you are not using PA to prove your point (even though you call it that), you are making illogical and unwarranted jumps in logic, and you are using big words apparently without really understanding how they are used in PA. Those are all major problems. I haven't really tried to address the argument per se in depth.I have reviewed yours posts one last time to make sure I didn't miss any flashes of brilliance, but all I could find was 'You don't understand PA', 'that's illogical', 'that's not relevant', 'flawed method' 'you're tyring to sound intellectual' etc. etc. That was the watermark of your refuting all my arguments. What is lacking Larry is an argument!
If you read, you will see that you missed the point.You said of the 'book of the LORD' and 'scripture' verses:
"They cannot in any legitimate way be applied to a particular translation of Scripture."
And then contradicted yourself here:
"It applies to translations that faithfully translate the texts"
Which is it Larry?
I do all the time.Seek ye out of the book of the LORD (whatever that is) and read.