Paul
As several have pointed out the present active indicitave verb form's usage in Greek to indicate an on going action, I would like to point out just how easy it is to twist scripture without even going to the Greek/Hebrew/Aramaic. Unfortunately, when someone adds "In the Greek it REALLY means 'xyz'", they get a fealing of completed action in whatever point they are trying to win.
While they can be genuine, when people go to the Greek/Hebrew/Aramaic to make their point I usually suspect their motive.
IMO
Having said that, reading the GNT this second time has made the Word more meaningful to me in English.
As several have pointed out the present active indicitave verb form's usage in Greek to indicate an on going action, I would like to point out just how easy it is to twist scripture without even going to the Greek/Hebrew/Aramaic. Unfortunately, when someone adds "In the Greek it REALLY means 'xyz'", they get a fealing of completed action in whatever point they are trying to win.
While they can be genuine, when people go to the Greek/Hebrew/Aramaic to make their point I usually suspect their motive.
IMO
Having said that, reading the GNT this second time has made the Word more meaningful to me in English.
Paul1611 said:I know nothing whatsoever about the greek language, even though I find it very interesting. I heard a man the other day talking about the word "saved" in relation to the doctrine of eternal security. He said that the word "saved" in the greek language proves eternal security in itself. That the word in the greek language not only means saved but a continual saving, not just a one time action. Would anybody agree or disagree with this?