In my response to Iconoclast I mentioned that sin has consequences. Romans 1 gives the consequences.Which doesn’t answer the question. Why did John tell us to confess our sins to God and He would be faithful to forgive our sins if the death of Jesus already obtained that forgives for those sins?
peace to you
Although believers would like to consider themselves above such consequences, the consequences remain in effect.
Therefore the need of John 1.
Some have the thinking that sin is non-existent in a believer as a result of the work of the blood, but this is error.
"The soul that sins will surely die." All die.
The cleansing of unrighteousness would result in a healing. This principle is also part of James' teaching,
13Is any one of you suffering? He should pray. Is anyone cheerful? He should sing praises. 14Is any one of you sick? He should call the elders of the church to pray over him and anoint him with oil in the name of the Lord.15And the prayer offered in faith will restore the one who is sick. The Lord will raise him up. If he has sinned, he will be forgiven.
For the unbeliever, there is the judgment of whether their name is written or not and eternal condemnation follows.
For the believer, there is the judgment of Christ as to that done for Him, but no condemnation is upon their eternity.