Wow, same ole', same ole'. At least it mentions that it is simply a "better translation", rather than God's ONLY INSPIRED WORD.Originally posted by Caissie:
1. I think it is the better translation
2. Both. The King James Version (KJV) is translated off of the "Textus Receptus" or Received Text. There are currently 5,321 of these manuscripts that have been found and they all massively agree. The Revised Standard Version (RSV), the New International Version (NIV) and most of the other newer versions are translated from the Alexandrian manuscripts. There are currently 45 of these manuscripts, in which, no two consecutive verses in them agree!
In my opinion, it would be "better" to have 5,321 witnesses saying the same thing than 45 witnesses saying different things.
3. I don't have as much against the NKJV as I do all the rest. I would rather someone use a NKJV than no bible at all. What I have against the NKJV is very minor compared to all the others. (like when Jesus said in Mark 16:16 "He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned." The liberal NKJV changes damned to condemned. They did the same in Romans 14:23 and 2 Thes 2:12. Most words from other languages have more than one meaning. Yes, I know that the Greek word in question here can be translated either way, and I think that the KJV has it right. Then Gen 2:18 in the NKJV states "I will make a helper COMPARABLE TO HIM" Where did the NKJV translators get that word "Comparable" from? Not from the T.R. Anyway, I know you are probably thinking these are so minor. I could go on, and on but like I said earlier, I do not have as much agains the NKJV as I have against all the other corrupt versions. Oh yeah, I am not sure I like that the NKJV has the symbol of the female god trinity on the cover.
4. N/A. I only think it is the best translation in English. I have found some words that should have been translated better, but the meaning of the verse stayed the same.
5. The Textus Receptus. There are different degrees of accuracy. The originals were 100% accurate, and everything else is not. But the KJV is more accurate than all the other English versions that are in print today.
6. Again, there are diffent degrees of accuracy and I do not believe that any translation can possibly be 100% accurate.
I do not bother getting in to debates about KJV vs NKJV. Now, I can put all other Bibles NIV, RSV, Message, and NASB to shame when compared to the KJV (as I do in my website: http://biblestuff.freerovin.com/favorite_links.html )
You're Welcome
Welcome to the Bulletin Board. I think you should read Ed's post regarding the TR and majority text. Do you realize the TR you are now using was generated AFTER the KJV?
Ed also asked a good question. When did the KJV become accurate--it certainly wasn't in 1611 if the 1769 version is?
Do you also realized that the translators of the 1611 had thirteen different manuscripts of which no two were either complete or alike and they pieced them together even piecing verses together to come up with one copy of The Revelation of Jesus Christ. This is no different than the textual criticism that takes place today when making translations. The translators finally went to the Vulgate, Bishop's Bible and Geneva (among others) for help. Of course, this was done all the way through the Bible---that is the reason the Bishop's Bible has so many verses that are the same as the KJ1611. It is DEFINITELY not a PURE translation, much of it was already translated for the translators.
[ March 20, 2004, 12:50 AM: Message edited by: Phillip ]