I would just like to point out Marcia, that the translators of MOST modern Bible versions, would disagree with JoJ. Nearly all of them render the phrase in such a way, that it would have regeneration preceding faith/belief. If all those who believe, "have been" (in the past, even if it was one second ago) born again/regenerated, this automatically excludes the possibility that one believes, and is then regenerated. Why? Because this statement of scripture would then be false, for their would necessarily be people who believed, yet were not born again.
You know, there are several things wrong with this statement. You are assuming that you know how the translators of all those versions would exegete the Greek. How do you know what they think about the Greek? How do you know what all of those people think about the aspect of the Greek substantival participle? All you know is how they translated, and then you believe you know the meaning of the English. Frankly, I don't think you do. Tell me, what is the syntax of the English renderings "Everyone who believes"?
Because this is the case, with most modern translators disagreeing with JoJ, as well as my own, very limited knowledge of the Greek language (4th semester, currently...), I have to say that regeneration necessarily precedes faith. Regardless of JoJ's opinion regarding aspect, both Mounce's and Hildebrandts Grammars, say that the Perfect tense refers to an action completed in the past, with an ongoing result. Most translators of MV's, such as the HCSB, ESV, etc., recognize this as referring to the "belief" (or believing) which is in the present tense. As such, they render it:
I'm starting to get bothered. For the last time, I AM NOT TALKING ABOUT THE PERFECT TENSE, but about the substantival participle. I know full well that the perfect tense refers to an action in the past with continuing results. I've translated the Greek perfect tense into English or Japanese literally hundreds of times, and read all of my grammars about it. (I have around ten Greek grammars.) If you're going to criticize my views, at least get what I am saying right!
Everyone who believes (at any given present moment) that Jesus is the Christ has been born(before that given present moment) of God
You know what, let's get out of the Indo-European languages and look at some Asian renderings of 1 John 5:1.
First of all, the Chinese Union Version translates
PaV o pisteuwn this way, with only two characters:
Fan xin. That is the character for "all" and the character for "believe" or "faith." The second character has an interesting etymology: the radical on the left is for "person" and on the right for "words," so to the Chinese the words of a person's mouth mean "to believe." It can be verb or noun, either one. You find the same character as the noun for "faith" in Heb. 11, for example. Now, believe it or not, Chinese has no verb tenses. You only know the time aspect of a Chinese verb by auxiliary words added. To make "believe" present here, the character for "now" would have to be added. It was not. In other words, the Chinese Union Bible gives no room whatsoever for the order of salvation from 1 John 5:1.
Secondly, I'll quote just one Japanese translation, since they are all pretty much the same on this verse. The
Shinkaiyaku (analogous to the NASV, and the main Bible for conservative churches in Japan) has this:
Shinjiru mono.... Now since Japanese doesn't have participles, it uses the plain present in this case for "believing" in an adjectival usage. Back translated into English it would be "believing one (humble form)" Now, if the emphasis was on "now believing" in the translators' minds, they would have used what is called the "-te form" with an auxiliary verb thus:
shinjite iru, "currently believing one." Thus the Japanese Bible also does not allow for the order of salvation in 1 John 5:1.
I rest my case.