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Repentance

This novel philosophical idea that some are espousing, that first one is saved and then they repent as a result of salvation, is far from the truth of Scripture. God says either repent or perish.

Maybe some are beginning to believe they can loose their salvation, for if they refuse to repent subsequent to their salvation, according to some they will then perish?

Do not even try to use the sophistic notion, reasoning in a circle, that IF they do not repent, it proves they were never saved. Such foolish circular argumentation serves no other purpose but to provide meaningless cover for a failed belief in the first place, that repentance follows salvation and is not a condition of salvation.

Scripture is clear. Repentance is required to enter into a hope of eternal life.
 

steaver

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Now Ann is one that always is seeking evidence from ones spouse as to their true spiritual condition. Let me ask you something Ann. If you committed adultery against your husband, and told him you were sorry for your sin, and that you had repented for it.....BUT continued doing the same sin day after day, would your spouse believe in the repentance you were admitting to have done? Go ahead and ask him. I would be interested in his response.

Then ask God about not only that sin but any other one might claim to have repented for yet commit on a daily basis as so many testify to on this forum.

What if she were sorry, stopped the sin of adultery, then two years later did it again? Is she still disqualified as having repented? according to HP's word.
 

steaver

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Scripture is clear. Repentance is required to enter into a hope of eternal life.

The type of repentance I see you espousing HP is that of perfection. Unless one has repented of their sins they are not saved, thus, the only proof of salvation is that they never do those sins again. Therefore, according to your logic, if one sins a sin that was once repented of it was therefore never repented of and thus that person is a liar and is not saved.

Tell us how you never have done the same sin more than once. Tell us that HP and maybe we will take another look at your theory.
 
Steaver: What if she were sorry, stopped the sin of adultery, then two years later did it again? Is she still disqualified as having repented? according to HP's word.

HP: Careful putting words into my mouth that I have never stated, neither have I laid out such a scenerio period. Ask God Steaver. He will show you the way.

Now show us how you are even the least bit consistent with your direct remarks on repentance.
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
You are reading it in English and trying to translate it back to Greek. Repent means repent. Repent means to be sorry for your sins and desire to stop doing them.
No I am not. Stop telling me what I am, and am not doing. You are speaking out of ignorance. Let me give you an example.

When a J.W. comes to my door, I know they deny the deity of Christ. I often take them to John 1:1. Their NWT Bible says: "In the beginning was God, and the Word was with God and the Word was a god.
I tell them it doesn't say that; it is a mistranslation, deliberately translated to mislead them and others. They tell me I have an inferior translation. I tell them that there is no indefinite article in the Greek. What stops the argument is when I get my Greek NT nearby and ask them to read the verse for me. I can read it; they can't.

You are like those J.W.'s. I can read the Greek; you can't. Don't tell me I am translating from English back to Greek--whatever that means??
You attacking me rudely over my saying one man translated the KJV. Calm down.
I am not the one making false allegations. Get a book and read something about Bible translations. Read particularly how the KJV came into existence. Learn something!
It is as if you are trying to strain out a gnat while you swallow a camel. It is not such a big deal.
The issue of Bible translations is a big deal. We have an entire forum devoted to just that topic. It is that important.
You are teaching others that repent does not mean to be sorry for sins, now that is a big deal.
You are right. It is a big deal to teach the falsehood that repent means to be sorry for your sins. That is error and will simply lead people to hell instead of leading them to Christ. Remember, Judas was sorry for his sins too.
You not only question my understanding, but all the translators of all the English Bibles along with the English speaking dictionaries.
Those who translated the Bible did just what that word said they did. They translated. That means they went from the Greek to the English. They didn't use dictionaries. They used Greek Lexicons. That is a book which translates Greek to English. They didn't need English dictionaries. Whatever for? They weren't going from English to English, but from Greek and Hebrew to English.
All that and you still do not understand what God means when He says repent. Just as God says, it is not about how educated a person is when it comes to understanding and knowing Him.
No, you reject knowledge. There is a certain kind of person that does that. You can find his name in Proverbs. It is not wise to reject knowledge. Repentance is not sorrow for sins.
I did give you a website. I do not always give the scripture when I speak about what God says. Is John Calvin's teachings numbered and referenced as the Bible?
Yes. I can go to any verse in the Bible and look at what John Calvin has to say.
I certainly do not have to do that for John Calvin. Now since you want to say John Calvin does not teach something that I said he teaches, then you can get the information to show me I am wrong, and just do not call someone a slanderer.
Don't you think you have committed enough slander for the day, just on the KJV alone?
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
Then ask God about not only that sin but any other one might claim to have repented for yet commit on a daily basis as so many testify to on this forum.
Would you have us to believe HP that you have never committed the same sin twice since your conversion? Are you serious? You never broke a commandment more than once?

I notice how you always evade Steaver's question here. Why not answer it HP?
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
Any view of repentance that does not involve godly sorrow is not the repentance God commands all to either do or perish.

We are speaking of salvation.
2Cor.7:10 where the phrase "godly sorrow" is used is directed to Christians, not to the unsaved.
 
How about taking a serious look at what Steaver has posted, as opposed to doing a witch hunt as to my beliefs? :thumbs:

Have you been converted according to what Steaver has stated concerning repentance?
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
How about taking a serious look at what Steaver has posted, as opposed to doing a witch hunt as to my beliefs? :thumbs:

Have you been converted according to what Steaver has stated concerning repentance?

You would have to be more specific. I see more posts by you about what Steaver has posted then by Steaver himself. Have you committed the same sin twice since you have been saved?
 
DHK, I know full well how confusing things can get for you on these threads, so let me quote Steaver again for you.
Steaver: "If one truly wants salvation through Jesus, then repenting and sorry will naturally follow. Else they did not convert."


HP: According to what Steaver says here, have you ever been converted? If so, how would you harmonize ones testimony of salvation with sinning every day? What kind of evidence would show forth true repentance from sins? How does sinning every day show forth the repentance Steaver speaks of,... without which, again according to Steaver, one really never was converted?
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
DHK, I know full well how confusing things can get for you on these threads, so let me quote Steaver again for you.


HP: According to what Steaver says here, have you ever been converted? If so, how would you harmonize ones testimony of salvation with sinning every day? What kind of evidence would show forth true repentance from sins? How does sinning every day show forth the repentance Steaver speaks of,... without which, again according to Steaver, one really never was converted?
What I can see is one short statement from Steaver, and then an entire paragraph by you--all those words that you have put in Steaver's mouth which he did not say. So I cannot comment. You will have to ask him yourself.

If Steaver, for example, is using Moriah's definition of "repentance" (which isn't repentance at all), that changes the whole meaning of his statement. Repentance is not being sorry for your sins.
 

annsni

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I still haven't seen an answer from HP - even though it's been asked by MANY and has been asked numerous times.

HP - Have you sinned the same sin more than once since you've been saved?

I also recall asking how long has it been since you sinned?
 
Just a note of wisdom to all posters, DHK wrote me up a while back for spamming the list, for asking more than one person the same question...... so use wisdom and do not bring unnecessary wrath down upon yourself........you spammers!:laugh:
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
If godly sorrow is not involved in repentance, it is not the repentance God speaks of when He says, repent or perish.

There is no such thing as "godly sorrow," when it comes to the unsaved. "Godly sorrow" means "God-like". No unsaved depraved individual is God-like. The word or phrase "Godly sorrow" is used in 2Cor.7:10 and refers to Christians only, not the unsaved.
 
Steaver, DHK and possibly others are having a hard time understanding what you wrote. Can you explain those comments better to the list for us? Thanks.
 
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