jonathan.borland
Active Member
NRSV Mark 1:40 A leper came to him begging him, and kneeling he said to him, ‘If you choose, you can make me clean.’
NRSV Mark 1:41 Moved with pity, Jesus stretched out his hand and touched him, and said to him, ‘I do choose. Be made clean!’
NRSV Mark 1:42 Immediately the leprosy left him, and he was made clean.
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new NIV Mark 1:40 A man with leprosy came to him and begged him on his knees, “If you are willing, you can make me clean.”
new NIV Mark 1:41 Jesus was indignant. He reached out his hand and touched the man. “I am willing,” he said. “Be clean!”
new NIV Mark 1:42 Immediately the leprosy left him and he was cleansed.
The reading "Jesus was indignant" is in only four Old Latin manuscripts (a d ff2 r1*) and the accompanying Greek text of one of them (Bezae, D/05). All other Greek manuscripts, all other manuscripts of all known versions, and all known Fathers who cite the passage have the reading that corresponds to "moved with pity."
Earlier I remarked that the "textual decisions of the new NIV cannot always be trusted." This is because the basic rationale of the translators is that the overwhelming consensus of the Greek manuscripts, versions, and Fathers may be corrupt at any given time as they clearly demonstrate by printing "Jesus was indignant" at Mark 1:41. If such is the case, it then follows that the text they print anywhere (even if supported by nearly all the manuscripts, versions, and Fathers) may also be corrupt or at least in doubt.
In Matt 4:1, for example, one manuscript (713) says that Jesus was tempted by the Spirit, and -- I speak as devil's advocate -- even though all other manuscripts, versions, and Fathers say that Jesus was tempted by the devil, how can one be sure? Surely over-scrupulous copyists would have been tempted to change "spirit" to "devil" based on their theology and the surrounding text, while it is hard to account for the opposite change.
Yet in Mark 1:41, the error is similarly present in the smallest sliver (if it amounts to even that) of the mountain of evidence available. The reading "Jesus was indignant" is an Old Latin reading, the origin of which is tightly intertwined with the Syriac version, i.e., many Old Latin readings were translated (or mistranslated) directly from the Syriac. As Metzger rightly notes, the Syriac for "he had pity" (ethraḥam) is nearly identical with its word for "he was enraged" (ethra❛em). Perhaps an early translator merely mistranslated the Syriac and thus the error in Latin arose. The editor of the accompanying Greek text of one of these Old Latin manuscripts then translated the Latin word into Greek and the single Greek witness for the new NIV in Mark 1:41 was born. Another possibility is that some early Latin copyists mistakenly copied iratus instead of miseratus (the reading of Latin some manuscripts), especially since in spoken Latin:
Iesus autem miseratus eius (But Jesus having compassion on him)
would sound like
Iesus autem is iratus eius (But Jesus he being angry with him)
and the one copying by dictation naturally would have left out the personal pronoun is (he) as it is superfluous and in addition not found in any Greek manuscript. The same aural and even ocular error could have occurred with misertus, a cognate of miseratus.
There are indeed other reasons that explain the tiniest of aberrations in the biblical tradition here, but the point is that the fundamental principles behind the textual decisions of the new NIV are doubtful, and thus its text cannot always be trusted.