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Is there anyone here who would agree that William has offered proof in defense of his claim that the reading found in the KJV IS found in a manuscript? If he has offered evidence for his position, and I have not offered evidence supporting mine, please let it be known.Apocalypse 17:8 Never judge a word in the Bible by the way it is used by DD, but rather judge the way DD uses a word, by the way the Bible uses it!
DD has become FIXED in a FALSE DOCTRINE. Be not deceived! Interpretations belong unto God!
DD is not supposed to read his doctrine into the word of God, but rather read the doctrine of the scripture OUT of the scripture! The answer to your Question is lying in the Wind! But it is there!
In Revelation 17:8 Codex Sinaiticus reads "ουκ εστιν και παρεσται" so, once again, william has been caught telling an untruth.Originally posted by TCassidy:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by william s. correa:
Yes, william, Codex Sinaiticus has not been changed. It reads the same now as it did in the 4th century, the 14th century, and as it will read in the 24th century.Originally posted by william s. correa:
"Did you check out Codex Sinaiticus in th 4th century" "they are going to find Revelation 17:8 and all of you will be surprised"! If they had already found it then why would I lie? Duh! get a life!
About 12.Originally posted by william s. correa:
Here is a simple question. How many hand-copied NT manuscripts existed in England in the early 1600s.
All of them. And all of them read the same, and none of them read as does the KJV in Revelation 17:8.How many are today extant ?