Revelation 17:8

Scott, it looks as if I was typing when you posted. "Great minds think alike." Well, maybe not, but you get the point!

I would like to take one small exception to how you stated your case regarding translation. I do not believe that "word=meaning" is entirely accurate, although in the added context of "not word=perfectly and exclusively worded" I will give you the benefit of the doubt.

However, there are two translational philosophies currently being championed by bible translators. One is Dynamic Equivalence which tends to focus on the meaning sometimes at the expense of the grammar and syntax of the original. The other is Verbal and Formal Equivalence which focuses on the grammatical and syntactical qualities of the original and attempts, whenever possible, to bring the word into the receptor language in the same form as found in the original.

I tend to be a "Verbal and Formal whenever possible" kind of guy. I believe that philosophy better maintains the concept of verbal inspiration (which, of course, cannot be applied to translations) and gives a more accurate, but sometimes less understandable, rendering of the original in the receptor language. Granted verbal and formal equivalence translations will sometimes require more study, but that study will be, in my opinion, much more fruitful than a dynamic equivalence "here is what the writer probably meant" type of translation.

(I know, this has nothing to do with the thread, but there has been so little posting containing any intelligent thought at all on this forum lately I thought I would try to raise the bar a bit!) </font>[/QUOTE]I agree with everything you wrote here.

My point was that "word" as relating to the Bible means what was "said" rather than a requirement for a single way of saying it. We can have the inspired "Word" in English... a Bible that transmits the complete and accurate sayings of God... but we cannot have the "words" as in an exclusively perfect set of words.

I wish I could explain this better but hopefully we're in agreement.

 

Ya' see there, C4K, we can all learn something every day!

Seriously, I suggest that you are not the one that doesn't have a clue, on this one.

Ed </font>[/QUOTE]well was John Greek? or Erasmus? or are You? why cant you try and translate from Hebrew the book of Revelation Why cant you try and use the KJB to figure out you delema? Why are you asking Me? </font>[/QUOTE]Uh, I think Dr. Cassidy answered far better and more eloquently than I could have, what with my being a 'dumb redneck farmer' and all that.

Ed

 

Did not mean to overlook Scott, just did not see it at first, after I saw a 'response' (using that term rather loosely, I admit) to my own post.

But hey! Scott and Doc Cassidy- Y'all just proved that great minds do indeed run in the same gutter!



Ed

P.S. Go for it, C4K!

 

If ever there needed to be an increase in the number of Graemlins allowed on a post, this is it!



Sorry, eight is all I'm allowed, but this one is worth eight laughs alone, at a minimum, in addition to the others.

Ed

 

All of that, including DD's absurd question, is designed to divert us from the topic at hand; namely, where is the TR’s rendering of Rev. 17:8 to be found, prior to 1516?
When I said this reading IS in some manuscript!I can prove a reading’s EXISTENCE, regardless of its whereabouts, I was making reference to corruptions such as occur in Aleph; e.g., "Christ was killed with a spear". That certainly is not a Authentic (God-given) reading, but the very fact that it appears in Aleph at all proves that the reading was in EXISTENCE as far back as the 4th century, even if in Aleph alone.If you are a Bible Scholar and read out of the KJB then your Focus aswell as
Your faith must first be placed in Erasmus’s Greek text, from whence that translation came. You can trust he english translation of a greek text only if you put you faith in the greek in what you are translating it from first!If Erasmus’s text had a typo at Rev. 17:8, then the English translation of that typo, naturally, could be nothing less than an error. Which is Not! then again I have answered your Question and Forgive me But I have been under some stress but nothing that I and the Good Lord cant handle together!

 

{quote}Your faith must first be placed in Erasmus’s Greek text[/quote]

And where in the word of God do you find an admonition to put your faith in Erasmus' Greek text? I think I must have missed that passage.

 

Mt. 27:49-50 in MS 01 might give such an impression to an ordinary reader.

 

Dr.

This has nothing to do with this thread (which has been entertaining).

I am pretty sure I was your daughters youth director at Fairhaven many years ago. Larry was my pastor and after we left we ended up in OK. where I pastored for several years and now teach at a Bible institute here OK.

As relates (somewhat) to the thread below is a link where you might get some interesting feed back from a man who is very proficient with several languages including Hebrew, Greek.

http://www.tegart.com/brian/bible/kjvonly/

http://www.tegart.com/brian/bible/kjvonly/doug/erasmus.htm

The last site deals with Erasmaus his Greek text and this Theology.

Have a blessed day and treat each other with kindness.

 

Please see these links for source of this material

http://www.fbinstitute.com/Hill/Chapter4.htm

http://p076.ezboard.com/fav1611godswordfrm1.showMessageRange?topicID=1429.topic&start=121&stop=140


I am more likely to believe the discoverer of the manuscript over TCassidy

[ May 13, 2006, 12:42 AM: Message edited by: C4K ]