Righteousness without the Law is Revealed !

[savedbymercy]

bib

Faith is nothing apart from the object.

The object of the Elects Faith is the Imputed Righteousness they have, and that is Revealed to them by the Gospel Rom 1:16-17

16For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.

17For therein is the righteousness of God revealed from faith to faith: as it is written, The just shall live by faith.

 

[savedbymercy]

Rom 5:1

Justification by Faith is the peaceful knowledge or awareness of our Gracious Justification before God because of Christ's Obedience !

 

[The Biblicist]

bib



The object of the Elects Faith is the Imputed Righteousness they have, and that is Revealed to them by the Gospel Rom 1:16-17

16For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.

17For therein is the righteousness of God revealed from faith to faith: as it is written, The just shall live by faith.

This text does not say "therein is the righteousness of God YOU ALREADY HAVE is revealed."

Second, verse 16 says the gospel "IS" the power of God "UNTO" salvation. He does not say "the gospel is the power of God BECAUSE OF salvation.

Third, verse 16 says "UNTO salvation to every THAT BELIEVETH" it does not say "unto salvaiton to every that is already justified."

Are you capable of admitting these three facts in regard to this text?

 

[DHK]

Rom 5:1

Justification by Faith is the peaceful knowledge or awareness of our Gracious Justification before God because of Christ's Obedience !

Romans 5:1 Therefore being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ:

There is no need to re-write the Bible. You just need to believe what is already written.
The result of justification by faith is peace with God. It is that simple.
It is not peaceful knowledge, but peace in and of itself.
It is not awareness of our justification before God; it is peace with God itself.

We are justified by faith. It is our faith.
But faith has an object. The object of my faith is the Lord Jesus Christ.
That is why the Bible says about Abraham:

Romans 4:3 For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.

 

[savedbymercy]

bib

This text does not say "therein is the righteousness of God YOU ALREADY HAVE is revealed."

The text does not say it is not the Righteousness you do not already have. The fact is however, it speaks of the Righteousness of God is revealed to Faith from Faith.

Everyone Christ was made sin for, they were made the Righteousness of God in Him 2 Cor 5:21

21For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.

The Righteousness of God here Rom 1:17

17For therein is the righteousness of God revealed from faith to faith: as it is written, The just shall live by faith.

Is the Righteousness of God here 2 Cor 5:21

21For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.

And so its revealed to Faith, not merely a general making known publicly, but Paul says its Revealed to Faith.

You see, everyone for whom Christ has died for, God made Him their Righteousness [by imputation], however its not known until God is Pleased to reveal it to them, and He does that by New Birth and The Gospel !

 

[savedbymercy]

Romans 5:1 Therefore being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ:

There is no need to re-write the Bible. You just need to believe what is already written.
The result of justification by faith is peace with God. It is that simple.
It is not peaceful knowledge, but peace in and of itself.
It is not awareness of our justification before God; it is peace with God itself.

We are justified by faith. It is our faith.
But faith has an object. The object of my faith is the Lord Jesus Christ.
That is why the Bible says about Abraham:

Romans 4:3 For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.

You need to read post 9

 

[The Biblicist]

bib



The text does not say it is not the Righteousness you do not already have. The fact is however, it speaks of the Righteousness of God is revealed to Faith from Faith.

The Greek text is interesting here. "ek pistews eis pistin" or "originating out of faith and terminating in faith". The idea is that it is CONTAINED WITHIN THE SPHERE OF FAITH alone in contrast to through the works of the law. "to him that worketh not BUT believeth" denies that faith is of works.

However, the previous verse demonstrates "THEREIN" the gospel is the revelation of that righteousness to everyone that believes. The gospel is a declaration that God will justify all who believe and thus the righteousness revealed is contained within the sphere of faith - ek - originates out of faith and "eis" terminates in faith and therefore BY FAITH ALONE.

Everyone Christ was made sin for, they were made the Righteousness of God in Him 2 Cor 5:21

21For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.

It does not say "we HAVE ALREADY BEEN MADE the righteousness of God in Him"

It is this revelation of the righteousness of Christ in the gospel that brings justification THROUGH FAITH ALONE and thereby peace with God (Rom. 5:1)

 

[The Biblicist]

What does it mean to be Justified by Faith ?



24But for us also, to whom it shall be imputed, if we believe on him that raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead;

This text does not say, "to whom IT HAS ALREADY BEEN imputed to those who believe." The future tense "SHALL BE" is what it states. Hence, faith is NOT DECLARATIVE of imputation but rather it is the gospel that is DECLARATIVE of imputation which is received THROUGH faith as the future tense demands imputation/justification is SUBSEQUENT to faith. That does not mean that faith is the basis of imputation (Christ is) but it does mean that faith is the MEANS THROUGH WHICH it is received. Faith in contrast to works - "to him that worketh not BUT believeth"

Do you know the difference between CAUSE/BASIS versus MEANS through which something is received? Christ alone is the cause and basis for imputation/justification but faith alone is the MEANS THROUGH WHICH it is received. This is the meaning of the double prepositional phrase in Romans 1:17 "ek" faith "eis" faith - it is restricted to the sphere of faith alone in contrast to works of the law. The justified LIVE by faith alone.

One's Justification before God because of Jesus Christ's vicarious Death for them is a invisible reality, one physically we do not see, but God gives Faith through the New Birth to Spiritually persuade the Mind of it's Reality , hence Rom 5:1 !

Faith does not declare our imputation/justification! The Gospel declares it while faith receives it and thereby we have peace with God. Faith is not the cause or basis of imputation/justification - Christ righteousness is the cause/basis but faith is the MEANS THROUGH which it is received by the elect.

We do not have peace with God BEFORE we believe but THROUGH faith in Christ we have peace with God.

 

[DHK]

What does it mean to be Justified by Faith ?

Rom 5:1

1Therefore being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ:

What does it mean here to be Justified by Faith ? To be certain it does not mean what many false teachers say it means or implies, and that is, that one is Justified before God or made Right before God because of their obedience unto faith that they place in Christ.

And if it does, then you are the false teacher. Correct?

In Acts 16:
What must I do to be saved? The command to be obeyed was:
Believe (have faith) on the Lord Jesus Christ and thou shalt be saved.

They are erroneously teaching that mans faith or obedience is the CAUSE of ones Justification before God, and supposedly Rom 5:1 states that. However this is error and not the case because Two verses before Paul makes it clear that the Resurrection of Christ gave evidence of the Justification before God, of all those whose sins Christ was delivered to death in behalf of Rom 4:24-25

You do err. Abraham had never seen the resurrection. The entire chapter is about Abraham. Abraham was justified by faith. "Being strong in faith...he was fully persuaded that what God had promised he was able to perform." That is faith. Abraham was persuaded that God was going to do what he promised to do. Abraham believed God (had faith), and therefore righteousness was imputed unto him. Abraham was justified; but the resurrection is never even mentioned.
"Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin."

24But for us also, to whom it shall be imputed, if we believe on him that raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead;

25 Who was delivered for our offences, and was raised again for our justification.

Hence the vicarious death of Jesus Christ has fulfilled and completely satisfied all of God's Law and Justice on behalf of all those He died for and was raised again, so then they are Justified before God because of His Death of bearing their sins Rom 3:24 and Isa 53:11 and so Christ's Resurrection from the Dead proves that God's Law and Justice with all of its Righteous requirements were satisfied by His Life and Death, and all for whom He did this for, or in behalf of, are Justified of God BECAUSE OF HIS DEATH, and so they have been accepted of God, which is also Reconciled Rom 5:10.

24But for us also, to whom it shall be imputed, if we believe on him that raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead;
Righteousness is imputed on those that believe on him that raised up Jesus from the dead. It is that simple.

So the Causative Reason for onus's Justification before God, is not their personal faith or obedience, but the merits of Christ death, having satisfied God's Law and Justice on their behalf. So if this be True, we cannot accept Rom 5:1 to be teaching that one is Justified before God because of their exercising faith or belief in Christ, thats taking away from Christ's death's accomplishment and giving it to man ! That is Blasphemy !

Your teaching is becoming blasphemous.
It plainly says "being justified by faith, we have peace with God." But you don't believe what the Scripture says.
It plainly says "to whom it shall be imputed, if we believe on him that raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead. But you don't want to believe what the Scripture says.

Verse 25--Who was delivered for our offences, and was raised again for our justification,--is simply an expansion of verse 24, that is what Jesus did on the cross. The imputation of righteousness comes through faith as it is clearly stated in verse 24.
We are justified by faith. Our righteousness comes by faith.

So Faith in Rom 5:1 must be understood in a declarative role, in that it makes known to all those Christ died their Justified state before God, that's why Heb states about Faith Heb 11:1

"By faith" is not a declarative role; it is a prepositional phrase giving us the means by which we are justified.

1Now faith is the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen

This is simply a description of faith, and has nothing to do with this passage.

One's Justification before God because of Jesus Christ's vicarious Death for them is a invisible reality, one physically we do not see, but God gives Faith through the New Birth to Spiritually persuade the Mind of it's Reality , hence Rom 5:1 !

A fable, unsubstantiated by the Word of God. Nowhere in the Bible does it say that God gives faith to the unsaved. What kind of fairy tales do you believe in?

 

[glfredrick]

Ahem... Ephesians 2:8-9; Romans 10:17; Hebrews 12:2 and others more indirectly.

 

[savedbymercy]

bib

The Greek text is interesting here. "ek pistews eis pistin" or "originating out of faith and terminating in faith". The idea is that it is CONTAINED WITHIN THE SPHERE OF FAITH alone in contrast to through the works of the law. "to him that worketh not BUT believeth" denies that faith is of works.

Rabbit Trail, the issue is that God by means of the Gospel makes Known to the Elect of their Imputed Righteousness because of Christ's Finished work on their behalf. All you are doing now is trying to show off with the greek, thats pride.

the previous verse demonstrates "THEREIN" the gospel is the revelation of that righteousness to everyone that believes.

Vs 16 is declaring that the Gospel is the Power of God to all them that are believing. Believing is Present tense. What were they believing ? They were believing what was being revealed to their Faith, that they had been given a Righteousness of God. This Imputed Righteousness made them Righteous or Just before God, so that being the case, the Promise is that the Just SHALL Live by Faith ! Rom 1:16-17

16For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.

17For therein is the righteousness of God revealed from faith to faith: as it is written, The just shall live by faith.

Everyone Christ died for, has been made Righteous by His Obedience alone Rpm 5:19

19For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.

That word Righteous is the same word Just in Rom 1:17, and so, everyone made Just or Righteous by Christ's Obedience shall live by Faith. Thats why God sends them the Gospel, to make known unto them what Christ's Obedience has accomplished for them, it makes them Righteous before God. So God's Faithfulness reveals to their God Given Faith that they have the Righteousness of God to their Charge, because they must live by Faith.

Thats what Paul means in Phil 3:9

9And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith:

Thats a Revealed Righteousness, one which Paul did not know that belonged to him by Free Grace, through Christ's work on His behalf. Everyone Christ died for will have this Righteousness they have imputed, revealed to them in due time, and it must be during their Life time, because if not, they did not live by Faith as the promise states Rom 1:17

17For therein is the righteousness of God revealed from faith to faith: as it is written, The just shall live by faith.

When My God says something SHALL happen, it shall happen..

 

[savedbymercy]

bib

We do not have peace with God BEFORE we believe

Thats False Teaching. God is at peace with all for whom Christ died because of His Cross Work.

Col 1:20

And, having made peace through the blood of his cross, by him to reconcile all things unto himself; by him, I say, whether they be things in earth, or things in heaven.

Now, This Peace is an Established Fact with God to wards the Elect, however, this Peace with God established by Christ's blood, is not revealed to the Elect while they are unregenerate and by nature at enmity with God, so in that way only the Elect did not have peace until they believe. So you need to be careful with your statements, the active believing of the regenerated sinner, has nothing to do with establishing the Peace they have with God objectively based upon the Blood of Christ, if you believe that, its Blasphemy !

 

[savedbymercy]

Righteousness is not by law !

Gal 2:21

I do not frustrate the grace of God: for if righteousness come by the law, then Christ is dead in vain.

If Righteousness comes by the Law, Christ is dead in vain, that is if Righteousness or Justification before God is premised on our personal obedience, then Christ's Death is worthless or in vain.

The word law in this verse in the greek is without the definite article, so its not restricted to any specific law, but the principle of law in general is meant and can be applied, it is the greek word nomos and means:

anything established, anything received by usage, a custom, a law,

a command

a) of any law whatsoever

a precept or injunction

3) the rule of action prescribed by reason

You see, Believing on Christ is a command or an imperative. Paul told the Jailor in Acts 16:30-31

30And brought them out, and said, Sirs, what must I do to be saved?

31And they said, Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house.

The word believe here is in the imperative mood, which mood denotes:

The imperative mood corresponds to the English imperative, and expresses a command to the hearer to perform a certain action by the order and authority of the one commanding. Thus, Jesus' phrase, "Repent ye, and believe the gospel" (Mk.1:15) is not at all an "invitation," but an absolute command requiring full obedience on the part of all hearers.

Command means:


to direct with specific authority or prerogative; order: The captain commanded his men to attack.

2.
to require authoritatively; demand: She commanded silence.

3.
to have or exercise authority or control over; be master of; have at one's bidding or disposal: The Pharaoh commanded 10,000 slaves.

So, if one gets saved or becomes Righteous, or is Justified by obedience to any command whatsoever, then Christ death is in vain for them, it is for naught.

Now, it behooves us to understand what Paul and Silas really meant when they gave the imperative Believe in Acts 16:31. Did they make Believing a condition for the Jailor to obey in order to get saved ? If they did, then they were teaching Righteousness by Law ! Yet most in the modern religious world say that is what they taught by that. However they were not teaching that at all, but they were giving instruction to one who gave evidence of being already spiritually saved and being alarmed of his sinful condition, of such it is appropriate to speak to them the word of the Lord, the Gospel of their Salvation, but if we insist that the Jailor was in a unregenerate state at this time, and he was given a command or imperative to believe in order to get saved by that act of obedience of his, then we teach Righteousness by Law, and make Christ's Death of none effect !

 

[The Biblicist]

bib



Rabbit Trail, the issue is that God by means of the Gospel makes Known to the Elect of their Imputed Righteousness because of Christ's Finished work on their behalf. All you are doing now is trying to show off with the greek, thats pride.

This seems to be the way you deal with any evidence against your theories. That is no rabbit trail but a legitimate point. Paul uses the preposition "ek" followed by "eis" in regard to faith. The idea is really clear. It originates out of [ek] faith and terminates in [eis] faith - thus confining it to the sphere of faith alone.

You charge me with pride because I note the Greek text but look at your very next comment below! Should I charge you with pride because you took note of the present tense???? Or should I simply analyze your grammatical point and see if it is accurate???

Vs 16 is declaring that the Gospel is the Power of God to all them that are believing. Believing is Present tense. What were they believing ? They were believing what was being revealed to their Faith, that they had been given a Righteousness of God. This Imputed Righteousness made them Righteous or Just before God, so that being the case, the Promise is that the Just SHALL Live by Faith ! Rom 1:16-17

The present tense "believing" and "is the power" demonstrates only that believing is in connection with the exercise of "power" by God "unto salvation." In other words the gospel does not come to the elect in "word only" but also "in power AND in the Holy Ghost" (1 Thes. 1:4-5).

16For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek. [/QUOTE]

17For therein is the righteousness of God revealed from faith to faith: as it is written, The just shall live by faith.

Everyone Christ died for, has been made Righteous by His Obedience alone Rpm 5:19

They have not been made righteous in regard to their own person either in time or space as that is what "glorification" is called.

They have not been made righteous POSITIONALLY as that is the consequence of faith in Christ or "justified by faith."

They have only been made righteous by provision not by personal application. They have been made righteous by purpose not by personal application.

You are going to the extreme and when any doctrine is taken to an extreme it becomes heresy not truth and you are teaching heresy because you are pitting one truth against another truth. You simply do not understand the Biblical doctrine of justification and you are incapable of discerning the difference between two major distinct Biblical aspects of Justification -

1. Justification BEFORE TIME AND SPACE by Eternal purpose - Rom. 8:28-30
2. Justification IN TIME AND SPACE
a. The provision for justification made in time and space - Rom. 3:24-25
b. The application for justification in time and space - Rom. 3:26-5:2
(1) POSITIONAL application "in Christ" by faith
(2) PRACTICAL application "peace with God" -Rom. 5:1-2
(3) PERFECT application - glorification - 1 Cor. 15:51-55; 1 Jn. 3:1-2

You attempt to take TIME AND SPACE applications and make them equal to BEFORE TIME AND SPACE eternal design.

19For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.

"SHALL BE" is not a PAST tense reality but a future tense APPLICATION

Thats what Paul means in Phil 3:9

9And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith:

This is righteousness OBTAINED THROUGH FAITH which has Christ has its object (objective genitive "of Christ").

When My God says something SHALL happen, it shall happen..

However, you are saying it ALREADY HAPPENED before the world began and man is simply realizing what has happened to them already but these texts refer to something not yet happened to them but rather it is something that "SHALL happen" not already happened.

You are confusing the eternal aspect of justification with the actual time and space application of justification.

This is like claiming they are already glorified in time and space when the fact is that is not yet occurred but "SHALL happen" BECAUSE they are justified by eternal purpose.

However, I have read enough of your statements to clearly see you are not capable of discerning between the two and will not admit to or change your views regardless of the evidence placed before your face.

So, I am out of here as I have better things to do than to argue with someone whose mind is made up in spite of obvious problems to your views.

 

[Andre]

Rom 3:21

21But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;

Righteousness without the Law is revealed, or a Righteousness without Law, for there is no definite article in the greek here to specify any one and particular law, so what does this mean ? The WNT captures the sense very well it reads:

But now a righteousness coming from God has been brought to light apart from any Law, both Law and Prophets bearing witness to it--

Now many take this to mean the Ten Commandments or the Law of Moses, and it does, but its not exclusive to the Law of Moses.

I doubt it. There is no "rule" of grammar or exposition that does not allow Paul to use the word "law" to denote the Law of Moses. And in fact, contextual arguments strongly favour this reference to "law" as denoting the Law of Moses.

Here is the point: If the absence of the definite article justified concluding that a reference to the Law of Moses is not intended, this would also be the case in Romans 3:28 where, likewise, there is no definite article.

Yet, as the following argument, it is quite clear that Paul is indeed, at least in verse 28, intending a reference to the Law of Moses. So there is a problem with the argument you are presenting, I believe.

Here is the text.​

28 For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the Law. 29 Or is God the God of Jews only? Is He not the God of Gentiles also? Yes, of Gentiles also,...​

Consider this analogous version of the text, analogous in the sense that the exact same basic argument that Paul is making is applied in another setting:​

28 For we maintain that an employee should be promoted in a manner that does not depend on whether they adhere to rule X, 29 Or is the boss going to promote male employees only? Is he not also the promoter of female employees also? Yes, of female employees also,...​

I have been very careful to provide an analogy that is indeed a "proper" analogy. Challenge me on this, if you can.​

Now: Do I really need to explain that "rule X" has to be a rule that only applies to men? I should not have to. If the writer expects the reader to believe that women are also subject to rule X (as well as men), he would expect the reader to also believe that women could be promoted by following it! Do you see the point? The point is this: If the writer believes the foregoing about the reader's beliefs, he would not refute his earlier claim about employees being promoted for reasons other than adherence to rule X by telling the reader something the reader already believes to be true if indeed all people are subject to rule X, namely that women can be promoted by obeying it! He would need to provide a different reason as to why employees are not promoted based on their following of rule X.

Obvious conclusion: the writer believes, like his reader, that only men are subject to rule X.​

Now, translating back into the original text, Paul must see "the Law" as something that only Jews are subject to. Otherwise, verse 29 makes no sense! ​

And so this Law must be the Law of Moses, since the Law of Moses was only for Jews.​

 

[savedbymercy]

andre

I doubt it. There is no "rule" of grammar or exposition that does not allow Paul to use the word "law" to denote the Law of Moses

He uses the word law in general, the Law of moses is included, however no obedience at all is considered in who God constitutes Righteous, they are all made Righteous by One act of Obedience, and that Jesus Christ Rom 5:19

19For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.

You add to that, its Righteousness by one's works..

BTW When the Law of Moses is particularly meant, it usually has the Definite Article preceding it as Here Acts 6:13

And set up false witnesses, which said, This man ceaseth not to speak blasphemous words against this holy place, and the law:

Here a general meaning of Law would not be appropriate as to what the claim was against Stephen

 

[savedbymercy]

bibl

They have not been made righteous in regard to their own person either

Thats True, in fact, while they are enemies by nature, they are made Righteous by Imputation. Legal Righteousness by Imputation does not effect change in a person, in the same token, legal imputation of the sins of the Elect unto Christ does not effect Change in Him at all.

All for whom Christ died, are reconciled to God, legally, even while experientially they are enemies by nature. Rom 5:10

10For if, when we were enemies, we were reconciled to God by the death of his Son, much more, being reconciled, we shall be saved by his life.

This reconciliation is connected to the non imputation of their sins upon them 2 Cor 5:19, because they were imputed to Christ, meaning God made Him to Be sin for them 2 Cor 5:21, by Imputation, so that they are made the Righteousness of God in Him. All this is Legal transactions, which effect no inward change to Either Christ, nor the Elect.

 

[The Biblicist]

bibl



Thats True, in fact, while they are enemies by nature, they are made Righteous by Imputation. Legal Righteousness by Imputation does not effect change in a person, in the same token, legal imputation of the sins of the Elect unto Christ does not effect Change in Him at all.

That is true. However, imputation did not occur BEFORE they believed in the gospel but at the point of faith embracing the truth of Christ's representative provision as declared by the gospel.

All for whom Christ died, are reconciled to God, legally, even while experientially they are enemies by nature. Rom 5:10

10For if, when we were enemies, we were reconciled to God by the death of his Son, much more, being reconciled, we shall be saved by his life.

They are reconciled provisionally by the representative work of Jesus Christ according to God's eternal elective purpose of God. However, they are not reconciled to God positionally until they actually embrace the gospel declaration of that provision THROUGH faith alone.

This reconciliation is connected to the non imputation of their sins upon them 2 Cor 5:19, because they were imputed to Christ, meaning God made Him to Be sin for them 2 Cor 5:21, by Imputation, so that they are made the Righteousness of God in Him. All this is Legal transactions, which effect no inward change to Either Christ, nor the Elect.

No, it is never disconnected with imputation of their sins. It is not disconnected in the eternal purpose of God before the world began from imputation of their sins. It is not disconnected in the actual provision of God in the Person and work of Jesus Christ as that also is according to the elective purpose in Christ before the world began.

This can be said of regeneration, justification or glorification as they are all equally NEVER disconnected from the actual application in time and space according to the eternal purpose of God.

It can be equally said that the eternal purpose of God regenerates, justifies, sanctifies and/or glorifies NNE simply because inclusive in the eternal purpose of God is also the application for each and everyone of these distinctive aspects IN TIME AND IN SPACE.

Simply put, what is eternally purposed is inseparably predestinated in time and space and you cannot reverse this order without repudiating the eternal purpose of God in totallity.

 

[savedbymercy]

bib

That is true. However, imputation did not occur BEFORE they believed in the gospel but at the point of faith embracing the truth of Christ's representative provision as declared by the gospel.

Now that is a Lie. That would have God responding to something outside of Himself and in the creature to account the sinner Righteous, when it was the Blood of Christ. The elect never had sin legally imputed to them. Like reconciliation, Justification occurs while the Elect are yet enemies by the death of Christ. Rom 5:10 Rom 5:10

10For if, when we were enemies, we were reconciled to God by the death of his Son, much more, being reconciled, we shall be saved by his life.

Also vs 9 states it Rom 5:9

9Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him.

They were Justified by His Blood, as were they reconciled by His Death. The terms Blood in vs 9 and the term Death vs 10 are the same, they are what is called Synecdoche, they both mean the Person and Work of Christ.

Christ's Death or Blood Justified them, and reconciled them before God, thus ensuring all future Salvations or deliverances. Since these blessings of the Cross are immanent Acts of God, the subjects need not have already have any existence, in other words, an unborn Elect in 33 Ad was Just as Reconciled to God and Justified before God by Christ's Work, as was a Elect sinner who would be born in 1945 AD, however they will not know about until a future Date whenever God is Pleased to reveal it to them by The Gospel and New Birth, it is then they embrace it by Faith, a Fruit of the Spirit in New Birth.

Your view is arminianism and its works ! Your view makes Christ death and Blood count nothing towards the sinner Christ died for until the sinner acts !

 

[savedbymercy]

bib

This can be said of regeneration, justification or glorification as they are all equally NEVER disconnected from the actual application in time and space according to the eternal purpose of God.

Regeneration, Sancitfication and Glorification differ in that these Blessings are TRANSEUNT and effect the Elect Subjectively, but these occur premised upon an Immanent and Eternal Act of God's Mind !