Sorry for not answering these in a timely manner. I have been on here but only spottingly and wanted to address these with do attention and not flippantly. :sleep:
I'm not sure you ever did state this. My statement was address the the common free-willer side. The point of the many post was to prove that God does step in and limits mans will. If God does this in anyway, this is in fact part of Gods nature. This can be seen as good or bad. If mans will is limited even in a small way, it is bound and not free.
Let me state this, I am not a common freewiller, (those who beleive man can choose to seek God when they want to). I do beleive that God can intervene in the life and situations of man and mankind. What I do not find taught or insinuated in the scripture is that God takes possession of a man and makes man do something that man would not have done of his own volition and choosing. God has differing means including using His finger to write on walls, speaking through an ass (which btw is not the same as speaking through a man by possession) AND your right this is about robots not puppets, my bad :tongue3:
chasak means to withhold, restrain, hold back, keep in check, refrain
I understand this and agree with the lexical meaning but specifically with the verb tense to which restain is applicable.
This is a
Qal-imperfect tense
1a) It is used to describe a single (as opposed to a repeated) action
in the past; it differs from the perfect in being more vivid and
pictorial.
The perfect expresses the "fact",
the imperfect adds
colour and movement by suggesting the "process" preliminary to its
completion.
It shows the verb tense defining a process that leads up to and incorperates the verb form of restrain. Simply put: God did not TAKE CONTROL (single act of fact) of him but through a process restrained him. What is that process, *shrug* we can only speculate and conjecture but we know He did not take and posses him to RESTRAIN him. We do know and I will agree, that it WAS God who initiated the restraining and
thus limited the options he had.
It seems like this is your driving point. If I'm wrong, forgive me. You hate to see any verses saying God controls you. You will fight to the end, so to speak, in order to show other wise. Allan, there is no base to build a "means" to compel the man.
No it is not what I believe, and I forgive you. :thumbsup: I beleive that God can and does limit man at time but I do not beleive God takes control of man (possess) as you speculate.
In this case God withheld mans lust to sin
Now you are interjecting something INTO scripture that IS NOT there. There was no lust to sin on Abimelech side and God even states this by saying "...in the ingrety of your heart..." Abimelechs only possible sin that would be accounted to him is to violate Gods decreed promise that Sarahs first born of Abraham was to bring forth a people and thereafter a redeemer. We know this because God states in the same verse qualifying why He restrained Abimelech "...not to touch (to lie with her - Hebrew lexicon) her." >>>EDITED<<< When I speak of Abimelech to sin I am refering to your lust to sin in meaning.
Jhn 9:41 Jesus said unto them, If ye were blind
(did not know), ye should have no sin: but now ye say, We see; therefore your sin remaineth.
I added for clarificaiton. Abimelech was not considered sinning because he had no clue he did wrong and therefore it was not sin unto him.
The verses are there. If you remove you training, it is clear. Just read the words, with no meaning other then the context.
You are placing assumtion into our conversation now. Remove my "
training"? I have had no training against your veiw. I have had training that institutes all those fancy 10 dollar words we get to use in Christrian collages but I find they do not help others who read or listen to our conversation in their spiritual growth and faith. So I try to keep it simple (though long winded :laugh: ) I have read it, reveiwed it, analyzed it, and commentaried it, and still do not see what you are implying it to hold. Try another one.
God did step in to WITHHOLD the sin. This is not freewill.
Already dealt with this issue. If you do not know something is sin, it is not accounted to you as sin. Now if God withheld Abimelech from sin as YOU claim - He was enept as Abimelech married a married woman and therefore sinned against God. As I claim, it was not sin to him because as God said it was done in the integrity of his heart...Therefore I KEPT you from sinning by not allowing you to touch her. (paraphrase)
Satan did not lie to Eve? Most would say he did lie to Eve. But still the point remains. God placed the tree in the garden. God knew Adam would sin. God allowed it, when God did not allow Abimelech. Why? God has a plan...God can do as He pleases...God is in control.
YOu are correct there concerning explictness. Satan did not lie (though the implication is there concerning his desire to mislead) but decieved (explicitly he did this) Why did God not allow Abimelech, because when common sense makes sense seek no other sense, that being Abimelechs sin would have negated Gods plan for a promised people and Messiah. Also Abimelech would not have taken her to wife IF he would have known the truth.
Satan will not be redeemed. Never. Why? God can do as He pleases
There is much more to it than that abstract notion. He does not do as He pleases without reason and His reason for Satan not given a chance for salvation is found in scripture.
Paul was decieved and God stop him and changed him. I was decieved. As it turns out...we all are. (( No man seeks after God)) Why? God can do as He pleases.
Paul had the option of obeying, and did so, as did you. God did not make man to not seek after Him. Man choose to be seperate from God which is both light and life within man. Due to our choice we seek not after God because in our sin state we don't even realize we are lost. God takes no pleasure in this.