Walter,
Before responding to your post, let my preface my response (1) first by stating that I am NOT a Roman Catholic and (2) second by making some observations based on previous debates on this topic.
Based on the arguments or booklets (ie 'Trail of Blood') I've read from folks defending your same point of view, I have observed the following implicit thought process at work:
(A) the would be theologian/bible teacher is convinced that his
interpretation(s) of Scriptures is the correct one.
(B) the would be theologian/bible teacher labels those who
disagree with
aforementioned interpretation(s) as "heretics" and/or "apostates".
(C) the would be theologian/bible teacher looks by at early Church history (particular the time of Constantine if not the ante-Nicene period), doesn't see his particular
aforementioned interpretation(s) taught or defended, scratches his head and makes the following three conclusions--
(i) the so-called 'Christian fathers' who wrote during this period were actually just 'apostates' or 'heretics'.
(ii)
'real Christians' (ie those who shared the would be theologian/bible teacher's
aforementioned interpretation(s)) must have co-existed in time along with the 'apostates' despite the lack of historical evidence.
(iii) the reason we don't have records of the existence of the 'real Christians' is that the 'apostate Christians' (especially the nascent Roman Catholic Church) purposefully wiped out all records of their existence.
(This of course is the recipe for Historical Revisionism.)
Examples of point (iii) can be found in these two comments of yours:
Secular church history is (1) Uninspired and therefore not free from bias or totally trustworthy; (2) Incomplete and therefore limited and often (3) inaccurate and many times intentionally so.
DrWalter said:
What we have is only what Roman monk historians chose to perserve - period!
What is problematic, particularly regarding the second of these comments is that if it is true, we have a fantastical situation in which 'Roman monk historians':
(1) chose to preserve, either directly (ie by not 'burning' the primary source) or indirectly (ie by extensively quoting their sources) works of heretics with whom they strenously disagreed and denounced--ex: Valentinus, Basilides, Marcion, Cerinthus, Celsus, etc.
(2) apparently did a poor job of trying to wipe out non-canonical gospels (eg. Thomas, Mary, Philip, Judas, etc), Acts, and Epistles (purportedly written by apostles, but recognized as heretical) as we still have abundant evidence of these non-catholic writings.
(3) left intact copious writings from the Fathers that would seem to
disagree with later papal developments/claims as well as disagreeing with other peculiar Roman dogmas (eg, the immaculate conception); ...
and yet...
(4) not only failed to mention the existence of otherwise orthodox 'baptistic' type churches, but also managed to wipe out all alleged primary sources of these imagined 'baptistic' believers.
What your historically revisionistic view thus amounts to is quite a bit of
special pleading.
You then offered some comments along the same lines
I am sure you are aware of many studies by Protestant historians, much less, Baptist historians who have surveyed the inconsistencies found in Monkish histories concerning those who were deemed "heretics" by Rome. I don't think you need a list of books from me to remind you of this perspective of history.
Many of these 'historians' share the same thought processes outlined above and thus commit the same fallacies as you.
Walt said:
The Roman Catholic response is the same toward these respected historians as it is to those it deemed as heretics - ridicule!
In the absence of actual evidence from primary sources, you resort to
ad hominem--particularly raising the 'Roman Catholic' bogeyman.
I'll remind you again that I am NOT a Roman Catholic. I have profound disagreements with certain aspects of Roman dogma and papal claims, disagreements that are based on the same historical data that you describe as being preserved by the 'apostate Roman monk historians'(!). As I said regarding the question of the NT canon:
DT said:
It is not "Rome's view of canonization of scriptures"--it's simply the historical facts
At any rate I had asked several questions in post 31 of this thread about the "actual evidence that these alleged 'non-apostate Ante-Nicene churches' (I'm assuming you mean, 'baptistic') existed, let alone that they held to the exact same 27 book NT held to by (what you describe as 'apostate') wider Church?":
DT said:
Where specifically were these "New Testament" (ie non-apostate) Churches located during the 2nd and 3rd centuries? What were the names of their leaders? Which of their writings had the exact same 27 book list as listed by Athanasius in AD 367?
To which you gave no specific response at all. Instead you gave a general listing of secondary sources which I suppose you believe support your view--
Walter said:
1. Foxes Book of Martyrs
2. Van Braught's Martys Mirror
3. Robinson's Ecclesiastical Researches
4. Mosheim's church history
5. Various histories and early confessions of faith by the Valdenses
6. Edward Gibbons decline and fall of Rome
7. etc., etc.
If you have specific answers to my questions in the bolded comment above, please provide them with actual evidence that we can check from PRIMARY sources.
(1) Where specifically were these "New Testament" (ie non-apostate) Churches located during the 2nd and 3rd centuries?
(2) What were the names of their leaders?
(3) Which of their writings had the exact same 27 book list as listed by Athanasius in AD 367?
I guess the following is the closest you came to a specific answer:
Walter said:
There is sufficient evidence that both the older Latin Vulgate and old syric translation presented (lacking four books) were as early as A.D. 150.
Okay--what is that 'sufficient evidence'? Which 2nd (or 3rd) century writer/writing listed the contents of the Old Latin or Syriac NT? -OR- Which manuscript from the 2nd or 3rd century supports your claim?
DrW said:
However, I think it is silly to presume that the apostles failed to leave the churches without the epistles they had written as even Col. 4:16 commands the churches to share the written epistles of Paul.
That's a red herring. I never claimed the apostles failed to leave the churches with their epistles nor that they did not instruct the churches to share them.
DrW said:
The churches had all four gospels and all the epistles in hand by the death of John and they were circulating among the churches and churches were making their own copies.
Another red herring. I don't disagree with this, if you mean the Church
collectively had the four gospels and epistles by the time John died, as all NT writings were indeed written by then. I just want to know where is your actual
PROOF that
each local church possessed
all 27 of the NT writings by the time John died (or at any other time in the 2nd or 3rd century)? And what is your
PROOF that any local church from this time knew that these 27 books, and these alone, were the NT canon?
DrW said:
It is silly, because where do you think the material for canonization would come from - the heathen????
Another non-sequiter.
DrW said:
Hence, the churches had the full New Testament in their possession from the first century.
Again, where is your actual proof, in terms of specific answers to the questions listed above?