I just now saw this. But if you ask the wrong question you will get a wrong answer. I cannot "explain this very literal description" because I disagree with the very premise. If you believe, for instance, that the splitting in two of the Mount of Olives is "very literal" then, I assume, you would believe the following is literal too, from Micah 1:
"“For behold, the LORD is coming out of His place; He will come down And tread on the high places of the earth. The mountains will melt under Him, And the valleys will split Like wax before the fire, Like waters poured down a steep place. All this is for the transgression of Jacob And for the sins of the house of Israel. What is the transgression of Jacob? Is it not Samaria? And what are the high places of Judah? Are they not Jerusalem? Therefore I will make Samaria a heap of ruins in the field, Places for planting a vineyard; I will pour down her stones into the valley, And I will uncover her foundations."
Yes I do accept this passage as literal especially when looking at the Hebrew text.
Also I have always admitted to the metaphorical in the scripture but have also stated the need of discernment to tell which is being used or even a mixture.
The coming/suffering of the Messiah - literal, Isaiah 53, etc.
Zechariah 14 the Second Coming also literal
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