What exactly is that distinction? Can one preach the Gospel with no reference to Scripture?I agree. But we also need to make a distinction between the gospel and Scripture as a whole.
'Him we preach, warning every man and teaching every man in all wisdom, that we may present every man perfect in Christ Jesus' (Colossians 1:28). Can we really preach Christ 'in all wisdom' without using Scripture?
'And that from childhood you have known the Holy Scriptures, which are able to make you wise unto salvation' (2 Timothy 3:15). If the Scriptures were able to make Timothy wise unto salvation, what right do we have to withhold them from anyone unless we have been up to heaven, had a look at the Book of Life, and found his name missing from it?
'For the word of God is living and powerful, and sharper than any two-edged sword.......' (Hebrews 4:12). With such a mighty weapon at our disposal, how dare we not use it in our preaching to unbelievers?
'For the weapons of our warfare are not carnal but mighty, in God, for pulling down strongholds, casting down arguments and......bringing every thought into captivity to the obedience of Christ' (2 Corinthians 10:4-5). I don't believe we should limit these verses to the disciplining of errant Christians. We must use the Scriptures to convince unbelievers, whether atheists or J.W.s.
The Lord Jesus tells us that we are to find Him in all parts of Scripture (John 5:39; Luke 24:7). If we can find Him in all parts of the Scripture, we can preach Him from all parts of Scripture. In a few weeks time, I shall be preaching three sermons on the Gospel from Ezekiel, most certainly for the edification of the saints, but also aiming it squarely at the unbelievers in our congregation.
This thread strikes me as nothing other than (notso) good, old-fashioned Hyper-calvinism. The Scriptures are given to the Church, but for the Church to preach to the world. "Go into the world and preach the Gospel to every creature" (Mark 16:15).