The same way you can be a "one woman man" if you have had more than one sexual partner either physically or by fantasy.Originally posted by Refreshed:
The question begs to be asked. How can you be a "one woman man" if you have had two wives?
Jason![]()
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The same way you can be a "one woman man" if you have had more than one sexual partner either physically or by fantasy.Originally posted by Refreshed:
The question begs to be asked. How can you be a "one woman man" if you have had two wives?
Jason![]()
That's all well and good but it is also irrelevant to this particular passage. The passage doesn't discuss divorce. It doesn't even directly address marriage. It simply says that a man should be a "one woman man".Another thing. I am not as concerned with the past sins that have been forgiven, then I am about the institution that I believe was ordained by God--that being marriage. I believe the results would be interesting if we polled BB members asking 'What is the divorce rate in your church?'
No. That's not what I believe. I believe "one woman man"... period.Originally posted by Refreshed:
Scott,
So, you subscribe to the "one woman man (at a time found in some mss.)" view of this passage? I give you the right to add those words (in meaning), but I'll keep my simple understanding of the passage.
Jason
I may be slower than some, but I do not see the challenge. Lust is something that will always plague a man, but we have been equipped to flee from it. Believe it or not, there are men that have fled, and continue to flee from it in their daily walk. From your analogy, am I to deduce that there isn't any sin that disqualifies a person from any position within the church, as long has that sin has been forgiven?Originally posted by Scott J:
No one is taking up my challenge over your lack of consistency here. Is there anyone here who thinks they are qualified if the "one woman man" standard is applied for a lifetime to include absolutely no lustful fantasies? Do we even know anyone who is qualified?
I may be slower than some, but I do not see the challenge. Lust is something that will always plague a man, but we have been equipped to flee from it. Believe it or not, there are men that have fled, and continue to flee from it in their daily walk.</font>[/QUOTE] That isn't the point. The point is that the scripture says "one woman man". Now it is consistent to say that anyone who ever gave into sexual lusts in any form is disqualified. It is consistent to say that the current character (proven by some amount of time) of the man regarding his relationships with women is in view.Originally posted by williemakeit:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Scott J:
No one is taking up my challenge over your lack of consistency here. Is there anyone here who thinks they are qualified if the "one woman man" standard is applied for a lifetime to include absolutely no lustful fantasies? Do we even know anyone who is qualified?
Yes. You can deduce that.From your analogy, am I to deduce that there isn't any sin that disqualifies a person from any position within the church, as long has that sin has been forgiven?
Yes, Bill would probably be asked to be a deacon in a large number of churches. My guess is that most would not want Ronnie.Originally posted by RockRambler:
In other words...if they were both members of Baptist Churches when they left the Presidency....Bill Clinton could have been a deacon, but Ronald Reagan could not?
That example makes my point decently well... though I didn't know Reagan personally and could not attest to his fitness on other issues.Originally posted by RockRambler:
In other words...if they were both members of Baptist Churches when they left the Presidency....Bill Clinton could have been a deacon, but Ronald Reagan could not?
I wouldn't either except it fails to be an interpretation consistent with the text or context of these passages. If we are fundamentalists then we should not speak where God has remained silent nor remain silent where God has spoken.Originally posted by williemakeit:however, I personally do not see any problem with applying divorce to the 'one woman man' context.
I am not trying to be a smart aleck but do ex-wives set the standard for who can be a deacon or does God?In a church that I was formerly a member of, one of the deacons had an ex-wife that lived in the area. He was remarried, and his 2nd wife was very active in the church. The ex-wife got upset about something and stapled posters all around the neighborhood regarding the man's character, and questioning the validity of a church where this man was allowed to be a deacon.
I would have voiced an objection for the man retaining, or returning to, the position, and I believe that I wouldn't be alone in my church.Originally posted by cindig2:
There was a deacon in my church that had an affair, when it was found out, he quit. He and his wife are back together, got some counseling, and apparently are doing fine. Our preacher asked him if he was ready to come back and be a deacon. And this is a church that won't even allow a man to be a deacon that has never been married before, but his wife has. Amazing!
People have wills. If the wife becomes addicted to drugs is it the man's fault also? Sin is an individual choice as is one party filing for divorce. Was man's original sin of disobedience God's fault or a "sign of His weakness?(Rhetorical question) God gave us a free will and when a person sins whether it be through adultry, fornication, lieing, stealing etc... the circumstances that lead to the sin and encouraged it may be enforced or presented by others but it is the individuals decision to fall into sin. I remember a woman in the church I attended a few years back. She used to live in a life of formication which had included prostitution. But since then she had been saved and was leading a spirit filled life and actively involved in the work of God. But nearly everyone in the Church couldn't get past her past and words were always spoken in private. Example "I know she is saved and all but oh my, all those men. I just couldn't have a relationship with someone with a past like that."I agree that divorce is usually an indication of weakness in the man... even when it is "her fault". But the point of the two passages in question is character. A man's character can and should change as he is sanctified. A 40 years old man may not be the same person that he was at 20.
People have wills. If the wife becomes addicted to drugs is it the man's fault also? Sin is an individual choice as is one party filing for divorce. </font>[/QUOTE]My point was this: We too often write divorce or sin within a marriage off to one party or the other... especially when one side's sin manifests itself in certain ways.Originally posted by Xingyi Warrior:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> I agree that divorce is usually an indication of weakness in the man... even when it is "her fault". But the point of the two passages in question is character. A man's character can and should change as he is sanctified. A 40 years old man may not be the same person that he was at 20.